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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 17

Question 160

A change request at Cascade Health during a branch cutover requires the team to let many internal users share one public IP via source port translation. Which response best meets this requirement?

  1. Use show ip dhcp binding
  2. Configure NAT overload or PAT for the inside source
  3. Use NTP on network devices and log servers
  4. Test SSH to the management IP and inspect VTY access restrictions

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

PAT distinguishes simultaneous translations using TCP/UDP port identifiers as well as addresses. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The binding table lists leased addresses and client identifiers for the IOS DHCP service. That is not sufficient here: PAT distinguishes simultaneous translations using TCP/UDP port identifiers as well as addresses.

C:

A common time reference makes event correlation meaningful across independently clocked devices. That is not sufficient here: PAT distinguishes simultaneous translations using TCP/UDP port identifiers as well as addresses.

D:

Remote SSH requires reachable management IP, active SSH service and permitted VTY authentication. That is not sufficient here: PAT distinguishes simultaneous translations using TCP/UDP port identifiers as well as addresses.

Question 161

At Hillcrest Utilities, an engineer must make two routers with mismatched OSPF area IDs become neighbors. Which option best addresses this requirement?

  1. Configure the matching OSPF area number on their shared link
  2. Find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort
  3. Apply the longest-prefix-match forwarding rule
  4. Compare administrative distances of static 1 and OSPF 110

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF neighbors must agree on the area for an eligible adjacency. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A default route handles destinations not covered by a more-specific installed route. That is not sufficient here: OSPF neighbors must agree on the area for an eligible adjacency.

C:

Among matching prefixes, the route with the most significant matched bits wins forwarding. That is not sufficient here: OSPF neighbors must agree on the area for an eligible adjacency.

D:

Administrative distance selects the preferred source of identical-prefix routes before comparing metrics. That is not sufficient here: OSPF neighbors must agree on the area for an eligible adjacency.

Question 162

A router learns 172.21.158.0/23 from OSPF (default AD 110). You need a floating static backup through 192.0.2.2 that is used ONLY when that OSPF route disappears. Which command meets that requirement?

  1. ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 110
  2. ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 100
  3. ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 1
  4. ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 171

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The specified static route has AD 171, which is greater than OSPF 110, so it is a backup rather than the preferred route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That static route has AD 110 or lower, so it cannot reliably remain a floating backup to an OSPF route of AD 110.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 100” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

C:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “ip route 172.21.158.0 255.255.254.0 192.0.2.2 1” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 163

A change advisory for Pinecrest Schools has two requirements: (1) detect unauthorized wireless transmitters without serving client associations, and (2) centrally manage radio settings of lightweight campus APs. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, remove it from the trunk allowed VLAN list; then use a controller-based WLAN architecture.
  2. First, use a supported monitor-mode AP; then use a controller-based WLAN architecture.
  3. First, use a supported monitor-mode AP; then map the WLAN to its intended client VLAN or policy profile.
  4. First, run show vlan brief on the access switch; then keep the alternate port discarding until needed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A monitor-mode radio can scan spectrum and clients for management/security without providing ordinary access. (2) Lightweight APs and a controller separate centralized policy/control from radio client access. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses prevent an unused VLAN from crossing a trunk link. The allowed list determines which tagged VLANs may traverse the trunk. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses assign different WLAN client traffic to an approved wired segment. Controller WLAN-to-VLAN mapping determines the wired broadcast domain for client data. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Run show vlan brief on the access switch is for verify that a desktop interface belongs to the intended VLAN, and Keep the alternate port discarding until needed is for understand Rapid PVST+ alternate-port behavior. The VLAN table lists local VLAN membership for access ports and available VLAN identifiers. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 164

Four OSPF routers become eligible simultaneously on an Ethernet broadcast segment, with no existing DR/BDR: R1 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.106); R2 (priority 1, router ID 10.255.0.16); R3 (priority 200, router ID 10.255.0.175); R4 (priority 80, router ID 10.255.0.178). Which router becomes the backup designated router (BDR) after the initial DR/BDR election?

  1. R1 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.106)
  2. R2 (priority 1, router ID 10.255.0.16)
  3. R4 (priority 80, router ID 10.255.0.178)
  4. R3 (priority 200, router ID 10.255.0.175)

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

R3 is DR with the highest eligible interface priority; R4 has the next-highest eligible priority and becomes BDR. Initial election is assumed to occur only once after neighbors are present, rather than inferring preemption from a late join.

Incorrect Answers

A:

R1 has eligible priority 9, but R4 ranks ahead after the DR is selected.

B:

R2 has eligible priority 1, but R4 ranks ahead after the DR is selected.

D:

R3 is the initial DR, not the BDR, because its priority is highest.

Question 165

A network upgrade at Lighthouse Medical has two requirements: (1) protect a Wi-Fi network using AES-CCMP and a shared passphrase, and (2) gain SAE-based password authentication on a modern wireless LAN. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Account for the implicit deny at the end of the ACL
  2. Use WPA2-Personal where the WLAN/client support it
  3. Use switchport port-security violation shutdown
  4. Match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients
  5. Use WPA3-Personal with compatible clients

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (1): WPA2 uses robust AES-based link protection in common personal-mode deployments. The other outcome needs its separate action.

E:

Correct for outcome (2): WPA3-Personal uses SAE for password-authenticated key establishment. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Account for the implicit deny at the end of the ACL is for explain why packets not matching any explicit ACL permit are dropped. ACL processing ends with an implicit deny when no preceding ACE matches. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

C:

Not selected: Use switchport port-security violation shutdown is for disable a switchport after a port-security violation. The shutdown violation mode puts the protected interface into an error-disabled state on violation. This is not one of the two required changes.

D:

Not selected: Match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients is for troubleshoot client association failure when the WLC has an incorrect pre-shared key. WPA2-Personal handshake succeeds only when both sides derive the same key material. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

Question 166

At Meridian Insurance, an engineer must connect a desktop to a nearby switch with common Ethernet twisted pair. Which action directly meets this requirement?

  1. Investigate collisions and faulty transmission or cabling
  2. Use copper twisted-pair cabling within the Ethernet standard's reach
  3. Inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters
  4. Use an appropriate PoE-capable switchport and compatible power budget

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Copper Ethernet PHYs are designed for local structured cabling with category and distance limits. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Frames shorter than the Ethernet minimum can arise from collision-related fragments or media defects. That is not sufficient here: Copper Ethernet PHYs are designed for local structured cabling with category and distance limits.

C:

Corrupt Ethernet frames commonly indicate physical media, cabling, or signaling faults. That is not sufficient here: Copper Ethernet PHYs are designed for local structured cabling with category and distance limits.

D:

PoE delivers specified electrical power over Ethernet pairs while carrying network traffic. That is not sufficient here: Copper Ethernet PHYs are designed for local structured cabling with category and distance limits.

Question 167

During a review, the administrator for Hillcrest Utilities is asked to troubleshoot an EtherChannel member suspended after differing switchport configurations. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Align trunk or access settings and permitted VLANs across members
  2. Use show etherchannel summary
  3. Set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges
  4. Enable Root Guard on the intended designated port

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Member interfaces require compatible Layer 2 parameters to join the same logical bundle. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The summary displays the port-channel group, protocol and member flags. That is not sufficient here: Member interfaces require compatible Layer 2 parameters to join the same logical bundle.

C:

STP root election prefers the lowest bridge ID, so priority controls root placement. That is not sufficient here: Member interfaces require compatible Layer 2 parameters to join the same logical bundle.

D:

Root Guard holds the port in a root-inconsistent state if superior BPDUs arrive. That is not sufficient here: Member interfaces require compatible Layer 2 parameters to join the same logical bundle.

Question 168

For the identical prefix 172.22.131.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.168); external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.147); internal EIGRP (AD 90, via 192.0.2.120); external BGP route was withdrawn. Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.168)
  2. internal EIGRP (AD 90, via 192.0.2.120)
  3. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  4. external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.147)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

internal EIGRP (AD 90) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over OSPF (AD 110).

Incorrect Answers

A:

This OSPF route has AD 110, higher than the eligible internal EIGRP (AD 90); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

C:

The internal EIGRP (AD 90) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

D:

The external BGP route was explicitly withdrawn; its former AD 20 does not make it an eligible candidate for this decision.

Question 169

A network upgrade at Eastbrook Labs has two requirements: (1) carry multiple VLANs between distribution and access switches, and (2) centrally authenticate network device administrators and separately account for command authorization. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, enable Loop Guard on eligible non-designated spanning-tree links; then use an appropriate TACACS+ AAA design.
  2. First, configure a trunk using 802.1Q with needed allowed VLANs; then configure VLAN SVIs with IP addresses and enable ip routing.
  3. First, configure a trunk using 802.1Q with needed allowed VLANs; then use an appropriate TACACS+ AAA design.
  4. First, configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS; then configure the AP switchport for the intended management access VLAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link. (2) TACACS+ supports granular device administration authorization and accounting through AAA. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses avoid a blocked STP link unexpectedly forwarding after BPDUs disappear. Loop Guard can hold a port in loop-inconsistent state when BPDUs cease unexpectedly. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses route between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 using a multilayer switch. Layer 3 forwarding across VLANs requires an active routed interface for each subnet. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS is for enforce per-user identity authentication for an enterprise WLAN, and Configure the AP switchport for the intended management access VLAN is for connect a lightweight AP expecting one untagged management VLAN on an access port. Enterprise WLAN security uses 802.1X/EAP against an authentication server. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 170

For the identical prefix 172.29.97.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.176); connected (AD 0, directly attached interface); static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.172). Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.176)
  2. static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.172)
  3. connected (AD 0, directly attached interface)
  4. No eligible route remains for this prefix

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

connected (AD 0) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over OSPF (AD 110), static (AD 1). A directly connected prefix is attached to a local interface; it does not require a routed next-hop IP.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This OSPF route has AD 110, higher than the eligible connected (AD 0); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

B:

This static route has AD 1, higher than the eligible connected (AD 0); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

D:

The connected (AD 0) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.