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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 2

Question 10

A change request at Summit Research in a proposed design requires the team to select three nonoverlapping 20-MHz 2.4-GHz Wi-Fi channels in a common regulatory domain. Which response best meets this requirement?

  1. Use a Layer 3 switch with switched virtual interfaces and IP routing
  2. Use channels 1, 6 and 11
  3. Use an OS-level container runtime
  4. Configure an IPv6 address and 64-bit prefix with IPv6 routing enabled where required

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SVIs terminate VLAN IP subnets while hardware routing forwards packets between VLANs. That is not sufficient here: These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz.

C:

Containers share the host kernel while isolating processes and dependencies. That is not sufficient here: These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz.

D:

IPv6 interface addressing includes a prefix length and router forwarding needs IPv6 routing capability. That is not sufficient here: These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz.

Question 11

A branch design for Oakbridge University has two requirements: (1) provision cloud or network infrastructure from a declarative plan, and (2) understand why a Terraform state file needs secure handling. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, use Terraform configuration and a reviewed plan/apply workflow; then protect the Terraform state and its sensitive output values.
  2. First, use Terraform configuration and a reviewed plan/apply workflow; then use a JSON array enclosed in square brackets.
  3. First, separate property pairs with commas and quote property names; then use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource.
  4. First, recognize learned features and forecast outcomes versus predefined static limits; then protect the Terraform state and its sensitive output values.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Terraform models desired infrastructure resources and computes changes before applying them. (2) State can contain infrastructure identifiers and sensitive attributes used to track managed resources. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses represent an ordered collection of network interfaces in JSON. JSON arrays contain ordered elements which can be objects, scalars or other arrays. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Separate property pairs with commas and quote property names is for avoid a syntax error when a JSON object has several fields, and Use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource is for modify selected configuration fields without replacing all others. JSON object syntax requires comma-separated key/value pairs and double-quoted keys. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses distinguish a trained predictive model from fixed threshold alerting. ML models fit patterns from data, while simple thresholds use explicit static comparison rules. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 12

A change advisory for Riverside Data has two requirements: (1) configure a static host route to one IPv4 server at 198.51.100.77, and (2) choose between OSPF routes for the same prefix learned from two paths. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop; then compare OSPF path metrics for the eligible equal-distance protocol routes.
  2. First, use ipv6 route ::/0 with outgoing interface and link-local next hop; then compare OSPF path metrics for the eligible equal-distance protocol routes.
  3. First, use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop; then use router ospf with network statements and wildcard masks for area 0.
  4. First, find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort; then recognize the S routing table code.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A /32 host route matches exactly one IPv4 destination. (2) Within one protocol and destination prefix the protocol metric selects preferred path cost. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses configure an IPv6 default route over a known link-local next hop. The egress interface is required to disambiguate a link-local next-hop address. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses enable single-area OSPF on matching IPv4 interfaces. OSPF network statements select interfaces for the specified area using address and wildcard matching. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort is for identify the route of last resort in an IPv4 routing table, and Recognize the S routing table code is for distinguish static route entries from learned routes. A default route handles destinations not covered by a more-specific installed route. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 13

A change request at Orion Shipping after a topology change requires the team to attach an IPv4 ACL to traffic entering an interface. Which response best meets this requirement?

  1. Use DHCP snooping on the client VLAN
  2. Separate authentication from authorization in AAA
  3. Apply sufficiently long unique passphrases with account protection
  4. Apply ip access-group ACLNAME in on the selected interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The snooping binding database records approved DHCP assignments for downstream validation. That is not sufficient here: The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination.

B:

A valid credential alone does not entitle a user to modify network configuration. That is not sufficient here: The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination.

C:

Length, uniqueness and rate controls resist common password guessing attacks. That is not sufficient here: The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination.

Question 14

The forwarding table contains an OSPF route for 10.44.5.0/24 with distance 110, and a valid static host route for 10.44.5.33/32 with distance 200. A packet arrives for exactly 10.44.5.33. Which route handles the packet?

  1. The /24 OSPF route because its administrative distance 110 is lower than 200.
  2. The 10.44.5.33/32 host route, because longest-prefix matching occurs before comparisons between routes to the same prefix.
  3. The routes are load-balanced because both match the destination and have different next hops.
  4. The router discards the packet because a static /32 cannot coexist with a dynamic /24.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The /32 matches one destination more specifically than the /24. Administrative distance decides which source is installed for the same prefix, not which of two different prefix lengths a forwarded packet matches.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Comparing distance across unlike prefix lengths does not override the forwarding table’s more-specific /32 match.

C:

Unequal prefix lengths do not create equal-cost alternatives; the more-specific host route wins.

D:

An installed host route can legitimately override a broader learned route for its single destination.

Question 15

A change advisory for Willowbrook Transit has two requirements: (1) identify the physical routed transport that carries tunneled traffic between fabric nodes, and (2) explain why controller failure does not necessarily stop all existing forwarding. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, use the underlay network; then distinguish distributed device data planes from centralized management/control functions.
  2. First, use HTTP POST according to the API contract; then store automation definitions under version control with deployment records.
  3. First, use the underlay network; then use HTTP PUT where the API defines replacement semantics.
  4. First, recognize consistent policy deployment through a central controller; then distinguish distributed device data planes from centralized management/control functions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) The underlay provides physical/routed reachability for encapsulated overlay transport. (2) Depending on architecture, devices can continue forwarding installed state when the controller is unreachable. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use HTTP POST according to the API contract is for create a new resource through a REST API with a request body, and Store automation definitions under version control with deployment records is for avoid losing traceability when automation changes routing policy. POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses replace an entire resource representation through a REST endpoint. PUT generally supplies a complete new representation of a target resource. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses identify one benefit of controller-based networks over traditional manual operations. A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 16

An operations ticket for Cedarline Hotels has two requirements: (1) avoid trusting an AI-recommended change without checking live configuration, and (2) distinguish a trained predictive model from fixed threshold alerting. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Recognize learned features and forecast outcomes versus predefined static limits
  2. Use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks
  3. Use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource
  4. Recognize the software-defined network fabric architecture
  5. Require validated evidence and human/network policy checks before execution

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (2): ML models fit patterns from data, while simple thresholds use explicit static comparison rules. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): AI suggestions are fallible and should not bypass deterministic authorization or operational verification. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Not selected: Use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks is for distinguish an Ansible inventory from an Ansible playbook. Inventory specifies managed endpoints while a playbook expresses operations to perform. This is not one of the two required changes.

C:

Not selected: Use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource is for modify selected configuration fields without replacing all others. PATCH applies a partial update to a resource under the API's defined semantics. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

D:

Not selected: Recognize the software-defined network fabric architecture is for name the combination of underlay, overlay, and policy/control services. A fabric integrates physical transport with virtual endpoints and centralized policy. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 17

Four OSPF routers become eligible simultaneously on an Ethernet broadcast segment, with no existing DR/BDR: R1 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.84); R2 (priority 5, router ID 10.255.0.75); R3 (priority 4, router ID 10.255.0.71); R4 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.243). Which router becomes the backup designated router (BDR) after the initial DR/BDR election?

  1. R1 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.84)
  2. R2 (priority 5, router ID 10.255.0.75)
  3. R4 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.243)
  4. R3 (priority 4, router ID 10.255.0.71)

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

R1 is DR with the highest eligible interface priority; R4 has the next-highest eligible priority and becomes BDR. Initial election is assumed to occur only once after neighbors are present, rather than inferring preemption from a late join.

Incorrect Answers

A:

R1 is the initial DR, not the BDR, because its priority is highest.

B:

R2 has eligible priority 5, but R4 ranks ahead after the DR is selected.

D:

R3 has eligible priority 4, but R4 ranks ahead after the DR is selected.

Question 18

Riverside Data needs to allow one IPv4 source host to reach a management subnet while denying others. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Enable port-security sticky MAC learning
  2. Apply the configured Layer 2 WPA2 settings to the WLAN profile
  3. Use an approved RADIUS or TACACS+ server architecture
  4. Write an extended ACL permitting the host/source and destination subnet with appropriate transport

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Extended ACLs can match both source and destination address criteria for selective traffic policy. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sticky learning converts learned secure MACs into addresses retained in running configuration. That is not sufficient here: Extended ACLs can match both source and destination address criteria for selective traffic policy.

B:

The WLAN's Layer 2 security profile controls acceptable association cipher and key methods. That is not sufficient here: Extended ACLs can match both source and destination address criteria for selective traffic policy.

C:

Central AAA provides shared identity policy and audit handling across multiple devices. That is not sufficient here: Extended ACLs can match both source and destination address criteria for selective traffic policy.

Question 19

A change advisory for Oakbridge University has two requirements: (1) relay DHCP client broadcasts from a VLAN to a server in another subnet, and (2) exclude network device gateway addresses from a local IOS DHCP server pool. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, configure ip helper-address on the client VLAN interface; then use show ip dhcp binding.
  2. First, verify NAT inside/outside roles and route reachability; then build a standard NAT ACL matching only approved inside-local addresses.
  3. First, configure ip helper-address on the client VLAN interface; then configure ip dhcp excluded-address for the reserved range.
  4. First, set default-router to the correct local gateway in the DHCP network scope; then configure ip dhcp excluded-address for the reserved range.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) DHCP relay forwards qualifying broadcast requests as unicast toward the configured server. (2) Exclusions prevent the IOS DHCP pool from leasing reserved router or server addresses. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses verify active bindings assigned by a Cisco IOS DHCP server. The binding table lists leased addresses and client identifiers for the IOS DHCP service. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Verify NAT inside/outside roles and route reachability is for troubleshoot missing NAT translations despite matching source ACL, and Build a standard NAT ACL matching only approved inside-local addresses is for restrict which source subnet is eligible for dynamic NAT. Correct source selection alone does not establish translation if interfaces and routing are misconfigured. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses offer the default gateway to clients through an IOS DHCP pool. The DHCP router option tells clients which on-link next hop handles off-subnet destinations. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 20

A branch design for Willowbrook Transit has two requirements: (1) discover a neighboring Cisco switch's device name and management address, and (2) advertise basic device identity to a multivendor adjacent device. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, inspect show cdp neighbors detail on an enabled link; then enable and inspect LLDP on the link.
  2. First, enable Root Guard on the intended designated port; then enable and inspect LLDP on the link.
  3. First, inspect show cdp neighbors detail on an enabled link; then configure trunk and allowed VLANs on the port-channel interface.
  4. First, configure controller-supported link aggregation with the corresponding switch port-channel; then consider FlexConnect operation on supported APs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) CDP exchanges Cisco neighbor information at Layer 2, including platform and management identifiers. (2) LLDP is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 discovery protocol that advertises neighbor identity and capabilities. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses prevent a downstream switch from claiming the root role over an uplink. Root Guard holds the port in a root-inconsistent state if superior BPDUs arrive. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses keep an aggregated trunk's VLAN policy consistent. The logical port-channel is the switching interface whose member ports must have compatible settings. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Configure controller-supported link aggregation with the corresponding switch port-channel is for aggregate WLC uplinks for bandwidth and resilience, and Consider FlexConnect operation on supported APs is for support a remote site that cannot always reach the controller. A compatible aggregated uplink spreads supported traffic across multiple physical links. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.