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Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 44

Question 430

An acceptance check at Sable Ridge Manufacturing has two requirements: (1) recognize an IPv6 unique-local address, and (2) identify an IPv6 link-local next hop. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Review the negotiated speed and the cable/PHY capabilities on both ends
  2. Recognize an FE80::/10 address with outgoing-interface context
  3. Classify FC00::/7, commonly FD00::/8, as unique local
  4. Apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address
  5. Use a next-generation firewall with relevant application policies

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (2): A link-local IPv6 address is only meaningful on its link and may require an interface zone. It complements the first required control.

C:

Correct for outcome (1): ULA is designed for local-scope addressing and is not advertised on the public internet. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Review the negotiated speed and the cable/PHY capabilities on both ends is for check why two 1-Gbps endpoints link at only 100 Mbps. Autonegotiation and cabling quality can constrain the actual operating link speed. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

D:

Not selected: Apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address is for determine which network a configured IPv4 host belongs to. The IPv4 network address is the bitwise AND of the IP address and subnet mask. This is not one of the two required changes.

E:

Not selected: Use a next-generation firewall with relevant application policies is for apply stateful application-aware inspection at the edge. A next-generation firewall can classify application traffic and track sessions before permitting flows. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

Question 431

An acceptance check at Harborview Logistics has two requirements: (1) secure remote CLI login to a Cisco router over IP, and (2) stop Telnet access on router VTY lines. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, build a standard NAT ACL matching only approved inside-local addresses; then configure transport input ssh on the intended VTY lines.
  2. First, enable SSH using a hostname/domain, local user or AAA and VTY SSH transport; then generate appropriate RSA or supported SSH host keys.
  3. First, enable SSH using a hostname/domain, local user or AAA and VTY SSH transport; then configure transport input ssh on the intended VTY lines.
  4. First, use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where supported; then classify packets using matching criteria such as DSCP or ACL.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) SSH encrypts remote terminal sessions and requires suitable keys and login configuration. (2) Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses restrict which source subnet is eligible for dynamic NAT. The NAT selection ACL decides which inside sources may be translated using the pool. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses generate credentials used by an IOS SSH server. SSH server authentication depends on a usable host key rather than only configuring a VTY password. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where supported is for reduce risk of exposing SNMP credentials on the network, and Classify packets using matching criteria such as DSCP or ACL is for identify a critical traffic class using header fields before queuing. SNMPv3 authPriv protects management messaging with authenticated and encrypted transport. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 432

An operations ticket for Copperline Studios has two requirements: (1) translate one inside server IP to a fixed public IPv4 address, and (2) verify users can reach and authenticate to the router's SSH endpoint. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Recognize Debugging as the least severe standard level
  2. Test SSH to the management IP and inspect VTY access restrictions
  3. Use a bounded low-latency priority queue for the voice class
  4. Configure an eligible NTP master or approved local reference
  5. Configure a static inside source NAT mapping

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (2): Remote SSH requires reachable management IP, active SSH service and permitted VTY authentication. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): Static NAT creates a persistent one-to-one inside-local to inside-global translation. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Recognize Debugging as the least severe standard level is for classify an IOS syslog message with severity 7. Numeric severity 7 contains debug-level diagnostic detail below informational messages. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Use a bounded low-latency priority queue for the voice class is for prioritize voice packets during transient interface congestion. Priority queuing reduces delay and jitter for latency-sensitive traffic if policed appropriately. This is not one of the two required changes.

D:

Not selected: Configure an eligible NTP master or approved local reference is for provide time to downstream clients from a locally chosen reference when isolated. A local time source can serve NTP within an isolated network, subject to synchronization policy. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 433

Granite Works needs to decide whether an authenticated user may issue a privileged configuration command. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Use authorization policies for the requested action
  2. Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs
  3. Use an approved certificate-based device identity
  4. Monitor traffic for reconnaissance patterns and apply edge controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authorization grants or denies specific operations after identity is established. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. That is not sufficient here: Authorization grants or denies specific operations after identity is established.

C:

Certificates bind cryptographic credentials to a trusted issuing authority and verified identity. That is not sufficient here: Authorization grants or denies specific operations after identity is established.

D:

Scanning probes service exposure and can be an early indicator of attempted intrusion. That is not sufficient here: Authorization grants or denies specific operations after identity is established.

Question 434

A change request at Granite Works while preparing a network upgrade requires the team to reduce manual repeated VLAN configuration errors across many devices. Which option directly addresses the stated need?

  1. Recognize HTTP status 201 Created where the API follows that convention
  2. Use an overlay network or virtual segmentation policy
  3. Use controlled network automation with validated templates
  4. Issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Automation applies repeatable tested configuration rather than relying on individually typed changes. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HTTP 201 indicates a resource was created, often with a Location header. That is not sufficient here: Automation applies repeatable tested configuration rather than relying on individually typed changes.

B:

An overlay encodes logical connectivity and isolation on top of the underlay. That is not sufficient here: Automation applies repeatable tested configuration rather than relying on individually typed changes.

D:

DELETE requests resource removal and must be permitted by the server's policy. That is not sufficient here: Automation applies repeatable tested configuration rather than relying on individually typed changes.

Question 435

An operations ticket for Cedarline Hotels has two requirements: (1) distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it, and (2) limit risk from a publicly disclosed software CVE on network gear. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations
  2. Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs
  3. Add an explicit permit for eligible remaining traffic
  4. Label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit
  5. Configure appropriate peer identity authentication and negotiated cryptographic algorithms

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (2): Fixing or mitigating a known vulnerability reduces exploitability on exposed devices. It complements the first required control.

D:

Correct for outcome (1): A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Not selected: Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs is for prevent unauthorized visitors from entering a network equipment room. Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Add an explicit permit for eligible remaining traffic is for allow the rest of an ACL's traffic after a specific deny. Without a final permit, the implicit deny blocks traffic not otherwise matched. This is not one of the two required changes.

E:

Not selected: Configure appropriate peer identity authentication and negotiated cryptographic algorithms is for separate VPN encryption from peer authentication in an IPsec negotiation. A usable IPsec tunnel depends on peers authenticating and agreeing on protection parameters. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 436

During a review, the administrator for Cascade Health is asked to recognize that XML element tags are not valid JSON object syntax. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution
  2. Use braces, brackets and string keys rather than XML tags
  3. Use a northbound API
  4. Use predictive analytics or a learned forecasting model

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

JSON objects and arrays have their own literal syntax distinct from XML markup. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Staged automation reduces the number of devices affected by an unexpected template error. That is not sufficient here: JSON objects and arrays have their own literal syntax distinct from XML markup.

C:

Northbound APIs expose controller abstractions to higher-level orchestration or applications. That is not sufficient here: JSON objects and arrays have their own literal syntax distinct from XML markup.

D:

Predictive ML estimates future conditions from measured historical trends. That is not sufficient here: JSON objects and arrays have their own literal syntax distinct from XML markup.

Question 437

An acceptance check at Harborview Logistics has two requirements: (1) verify that OSPF neighbors reached the FULL state, and (2) install a route toward an adjacent directly connected point-to-point interface. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop; then configure the target prefix with the valid outgoing point-to-point interface.
  2. First, use ipv6 route ::/0 with outgoing interface and link-local next hop; then recognize the S routing table code.
  3. First, run show ip ospf neighbor and inspect state; then investigate interface MTU mismatch and adjacency parameters.
  4. First, run show ip ospf neighbor and inspect state; then configure the target prefix with the valid outgoing point-to-point interface.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) The neighbor table shows adjacency state and neighbor identifiers on OSPF interfaces. (2) On a point-to-point interface, the route can use the egress interface without Ethernet ARP for each host. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses configure a static host route to one IPv4 server at 198.51.100.77. A /32 host route matches exactly one IPv4 destination. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use ipv6 route ::/0 with outgoing interface and link-local next hop is for configure an IPv6 default route over a known link-local next hop, and Recognize the S routing table code is for distinguish static route entries from learned routes. The egress interface is required to disambiguate a link-local next-hop address. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses explain why two OSPF routers remain stuck in EXSTART. OSPF database description negotiation can fail when peers disagree on MTU. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 438

For the identical prefix 172.31.93.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.38); RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.234); OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.31). Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.31)
  2. RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.234)
  3. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  4. external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.38)

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

external BGP (AD 20) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over RIP (AD 120), OSPF (AD 110).

Incorrect Answers

A:

This OSPF route has AD 110, higher than the eligible external BGP (AD 20); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

B:

This RIP route has AD 120, higher than the eligible external BGP (AD 20); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

C:

The external BGP (AD 20) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

Question 439

A branch design for Summit Research has two requirements: (1) explain what ESP protects in common IPsec tunnels, and (2) protect confidentiality of management credentials in transit. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, recognize IPsec ESP confidentiality and integrity protection; then match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients.
  2. First, recognize IPsec ESP confidentiality and integrity protection; then use authenticated encryption on management protocols.
  3. First, place the deny ACE earlier in sequence order; then use a standard ACL deny for that source IP followed by required permits.
  4. First, use exec-timeout on VTY lines; then use authenticated encryption on management protocols.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) ESP can encrypt payloads and provide authenticated integrity for protected packets. (2) Encryption prevents passive observation of session data while authentication limits impersonation. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses troubleshoot client association failure when the WLC has an incorrect pre-shared key. WPA2-Personal handshake succeeds only when both sides derive the same key material. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Place the deny ACE earlier in sequence order is for ensure a specific host denial is evaluated before a broad permit, and Use a standard ACL deny for that source IP followed by required permits is for deny one known infected source IP regardless of destination using a simple filter. IOS ACL processing uses the first matching entry, so later entries are not checked after a match. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses configure an idle timeout for remote administrative sessions. An EXEC timeout closes inactive terminal sessions instead of leaving a management login open indefinitely. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 440

Two OSPF DROther routers on a normal broadcast Ethernet LAN show each other in 2-Way state, while both have Full adjacencies with the DR/BDR. Is this behavior necessarily a fault?

  1. Yes; every pair must reach Full regardless of network type
  2. Yes; a 2-Way state proves the IP network masks are different
  3. No; the 2-Way state means those two routers have stopped exchanging all hellos
  4. No; 2-Way between DROther routers is normal on broadcast segments with a DR/BDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF limits full adjacency requirements on a multiaccess broadcast network; not every DROther pair exchanges its complete database directly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broadcast networks normally use DR/BDR to limit which neighbors fully synchronize.

B:

Mismatched masks can be a problem, but the described normal DROther relationship alone does not establish it.

C:

2-Way reflects bidirectional hello recognition, not an absence of hello reception.