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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 85

Question 840

A router reaches 198.51.100.0/24 through an OSPF-learned path with administrative distance 110. Operations configures a static route for the exact same prefix with administrative distance 200 as a backup, and its next hop is reachable. Which behavior should be expected while OSPF remains healthy?

  1. Both matching /24 routes must share traffic equally because each is installed from a different routing source.
  2. The static route always wins because static routes have administrative distance 1 regardless of configuration.
  3. The OSPF route remains preferred; the higher-distance static route becomes usable if the OSPF route is withdrawn and the backup next hop remains valid.
  4. The router must discard the OSPF route until the backup static route becomes unreachable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For matching prefix lengths, the route source with the lower administrative distance is preferred. Raising static distance above 110 creates a floating standby without suppressing the healthy OSPF route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Equal-cost multipath does not follow simply from two configured routes with unequal administrative distances.

B:

A static route can be explicitly configured with a different distance; the specified value 200 is higher than OSPF 110.

D:

A high-distance backup does not force withdrawal of the more-preferred valid OSPF route.

Question 841

An operations ticket for Harborview Logistics has two requirements: (1) require a local credential when accessing an IOS console, and (2) avoid storing new local user credentials as plain text. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, configure a local username, login local, and relevant console line settings; then use WPA3-Personal with compatible clients.
  2. First, mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted; then create username entries with the secret option and appropriate privilege.
  3. First, configure a local username, login local, and relevant console line settings; then create username entries with the secret option and appropriate privilege.
  4. First, configure switchport port-security maximum 2 on the access interface; then use switchport port-security violation shutdown.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Line login local authenticates against the device's configured local user database. (2) IOS username secret stores a protected password hash rather than literal cleartext configuration. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses gain SAE-based password authentication on a modern wireless LAN. WPA3-Personal uses SAE for password-authenticated key establishment. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses avoid allowing untrusted access ports to forward forged DHCP server responses. A trusted uplink assignment without global and VLAN DHCP snooping enablement does not itself block rogue server replies on user access ports. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Configure switchport port-security maximum 2 on the access interface is for limit an access switchport to two learned endpoint MAC addresses, and Use switchport port-security violation shutdown is for disable a switchport after a port-security violation. Port security can cap how many source MAC addresses the port accepts. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 842

A change advisory for Baypoint Retail has two requirements: (1) verify that an IPv6 interface has a link-local address, and (2) derive an IPv6 subnet prefix from a /48 allocation for a single LAN. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, inspect show ipv6 interface for the FE80::/10 link-local address; then use show ipv6 route.
  2. First, inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters; then allocate a unique /64 subnet within the /48 block.
  3. First, classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space; then recognize UDP's connectionless best-effort transport.
  4. First, inspect show ipv6 interface for the FE80::/10 link-local address; then allocate a unique /64 subnet within the /48 block.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Link-local addresses are used for on-link neighbor discovery and routing adjacencies. (2) A /48 leaves 16 subnet ID bits for up to 65,536 conventional /64 networks. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses display the IPv6 forwarding table on a Cisco router. The IPv6 routing table exposes connected, static and learned IPv6 destinations. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses diagnose rising CRC/FCS errors on one access port. Corrupt Ethernet frames commonly indicate physical media, cabling, or signaling faults. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space is for recognize an RFC1918 address in 10.0.0.0/8, and Recognize UDP's connectionless best-effort transport is for explain the absence of congestion and delivery guarantees in a datagram protocol. RFC1918 private ranges are not publicly routed on the global internet. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 843

A change request at Pinecrest Schools after migrating office users requires the team to identify one benefit of controller-based networks over traditional manual operations. What response best fits this requirement?

  1. Compare collected device state against desired-state definitions
  2. Use logical overlay endpoint mappings on a reachable underlay
  3. Use a JSON number without quotation marks when the schema expects a number
  4. Recognize consistent policy deployment through a central controller

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Desired-state comparison reveals unexpected settings without making manual device-by-device assumptions. That is not sufficient here: A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network.

B:

Endpoint-to-location mappings decouple service connectivity from physical topology. That is not sufficient here: A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network.

C:

JSON numbers encode numeric data rather than text requiring parsing. That is not sufficient here: A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network.

Question 844

During a review, the administrator for Cedarline Hotels is asked to distinguish an SNMP manager from an agent. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Recognize the manager queries devices and agents expose managed variables
  2. Read the syslog facility and severity as distinct attributes
  3. Configure ip address dhcp on the WAN interface
  4. Use DNS A record lookup

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

SNMP assigns monitoring queries to managers and local MIB instrumentation to device agents. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Facility indicates message origin while severity indicates importance. That is not sufficient here: SNMP assigns monitoring queries to managers and local MIB instrumentation to device agents.

C:

A DHCP client interface requests leased IP parameters instead of using a fixed static address. That is not sufficient here: SNMP assigns monitoring queries to managers and local MIB instrumentation to device agents.

D:

DNS maps names to addresses, while DHCP leases IP settings and does not replace DNS. That is not sufficient here: SNMP assigns monitoring queries to managers and local MIB instrumentation to device agents.

Question 845

Switches on one Rapid PVST+ VLAN instance advertise these bridge IDs: SW-1 (priority 32768, MAC 23b5268f54d3); SW-2 (priority 20480, MAC 3afcb1af18ed); SW-3 (priority 16384, MAC 381557fa3b51); SW-4 (priority 12288, MAC 61383f76a027). They are powered on with no previous root. Which switch is the elected root?

  1. SW-1 (priority 32768, MAC 23b5268f54d3)
  2. SW-4 (priority 12288, MAC 61383f76a027)
  3. SW-3 (priority 16384, MAC 381557fa3b51)
  4. SW-2 (priority 20480, MAC 3afcb1af18ed)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The STP root is the switch with the numerically lowest bridge ID: priority is compared first, followed by MAC on ties. SW-4 has the lowest priority 12288.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Its advertised priority is greater than the winner 12288, and no tie breaker changes the result.

C:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “SW-3 (priority 16384, MAC 381557fa3b51)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “SW-2 (priority 20480, MAC 3afcb1af18ed)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 846

An acceptance check at Greenfield Services has two requirements: (1) recognize an IPv6 unique-local address, and (2) select three nonoverlapping 20-MHz 2.4-GHz Wi-Fi channels in a common regulatory domain. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Classify 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 as private
  2. Identify the address with all host bits set to one
  3. Inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters
  4. Use channels 1, 6 and 11
  5. Classify FC00::/7, commonly FD00::/8, as unique local

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Correct for outcome (2): These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): ULA is designed for local-scope addressing and is not advertised on the public internet. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Classify 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 as private is for recognize an RFC1918 address in 172.16.0.0/12. Only 172.16/12 is private, not all addresses beginning 172. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

B:

Not selected: Identify the address with all host bits set to one is for distinguish a directed broadcast from an ordinary host IP. The all-ones host portion represents the subnet-directed broadcast in ordinary IPv4 subnets. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters is for diagnose rising CRC/FCS errors on one access port. Corrupt Ethernet frames commonly indicate physical media, cabling, or signaling faults. This is not one of the two required changes.

Question 847

An operations ticket for Baypoint Retail has two requirements: (1) detect active port scanning that precedes unwanted access attempts, and (2) protect confidentiality of management credentials in transit. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, apply the configured Layer 2 WPA2 settings to the WLAN profile; then require screen locking and restricted physical device access.
  2. First, monitor traffic for reconnaissance patterns and apply edge controls; then recognize IPsec ESP confidentiality and integrity protection.
  3. First, monitor traffic for reconnaissance patterns and apply edge controls; then use authenticated encryption on management protocols.
  4. First, segment access and apply least-privilege traffic rules; then use authenticated encryption on management protocols.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Scanning probes service exposure and can be an early indicator of attempted intrusion. (2) Encryption prevents passive observation of session data while authentication limits impersonation. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Apply the configured Layer 2 WPA2 settings to the WLAN profile is for associate a wireless SSID with its intended security policy in WLC, and Require screen locking and restricted physical device access is for avoid unattended visitors modifying shared network workstations. The WLAN's Layer 2 security profile controls acceptable association cipher and key methods. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses explain what ESP protects in common IPsec tunnels. ESP can encrypt payloads and provide authenticated integrity for protected packets. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses reduce blast radius if one user endpoint becomes compromised. Segmentation limits lateral movement paths through network boundaries. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 848

A static route was configured for 203.0.113.0/24 through GigabitEthernet0/2, but the outgoing interface is administratively shut down. Another matching dynamic route is available. Which finding best explains why the static path is not used?

  1. The configured interface is ignored because static routes always inherit the router default interface.
  2. The interface automatically enables when any packet matches the static prefix.
  3. The dynamic route is deleted whenever a static command exists in running-config.
  4. The static exit path is unavailable while its specified interface is shutdown, so a valid alternative route must handle the prefix.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The static route needs a usable outgoing interface for installation and forwarding; an administratively disabled interface cannot carry its packets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An explicitly specified static-route interface matters to forwarding eligibility.

B:

Routing lookup does not override an administrative interface shutdown.

C:

An unusable static route cannot automatically remove all working alternatives merely because its statement exists.

Question 849

Four OSPF routers become eligible simultaneously on an Ethernet broadcast segment, with no existing DR/BDR: R1 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.223); R2 (priority 0, router ID 10.255.0.115); R3 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.99); R4 (priority 3, router ID 10.255.0.51). Which router is ineligible for either DR or BDR because its OSPF interface priority is zero?

  1. R4 (priority 3, router ID 10.255.0.51)
  2. R2 (priority 0, router ID 10.255.0.115)
  3. R1 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.223)
  4. R3 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.99)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

R2 has interface priority 0 and cannot become DR or BDR; positive-priority neighbors remain election candidates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

R4 has nonzero priority 3 and is therefore eligible to take part in the initial DR/BDR election. The question asks for the router excluded by priority zero.

C:

R1 has nonzero priority 10 and is therefore eligible to take part in the initial DR/BDR election. The question asks for the router excluded by priority zero.

D:

R3 has nonzero priority 9 and is therefore eligible to take part in the initial DR/BDR election. The question asks for the router excluded by priority zero.

Question 850

For the identical prefix 172.23.189.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.117); RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.34); static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.100); static route was withdrawn. Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  2. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.117)
  3. static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.100)
  4. RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.34)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF (AD 110) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over RIP (AD 120).

Incorrect Answers

A:

The OSPF (AD 110) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

C:

The static route was explicitly withdrawn; its former AD 1 does not make it an eligible candidate for this decision.

D:

This RIP route has AD 120, higher than the eligible OSPF (AD 110); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.