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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 5

Question 40

A network engineer configures a host using IPv4 address 10.217.59.212/24. What is the host subnet network address?

  1. 10.217.59.0
  2. 10.217.60.0
  3. 10.217.59.1
  4. 10.217.59.255

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Applying a /24 mask sets the 8 host bits to zero, giving 10.217.59.0.

Incorrect Answers

B:

10.217.60.0 is not the result of setting the host bits to zero under /24.

C:

10.217.59.1 is not the result of setting the host bits to zero under /24.

D:

10.217.59.255 is not the result of setting the host bits to zero under /24.

Question 41

A change request at Meridian Insurance while preparing a network upgrade requires the team to allocate IPv4 addresses, mask, gateway and DNS information automatically to clients. Which option directly addresses the stated need?

  1. Use show ip dhcp binding
  2. Provide a DHCP scope with a valid address pool and options
  3. Use NTP on network devices and log servers
  4. Set ip nat inside and ip nat outside on correct interfaces

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

DHCP leases IP parameters so clients need not be statically configured. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The binding table lists leased addresses and client identifiers for the IOS DHCP service. That is not sufficient here: DHCP leases IP parameters so clients need not be statically configured.

C:

A common time reference makes event correlation meaningful across independently clocked devices. That is not sufficient here: DHCP leases IP parameters so clients need not be statically configured.

D:

NAT direction depends on the configured inside/outside interface roles. That is not sufficient here: DHCP leases IP parameters so clients need not be statically configured.

Question 42

A change advisory for Pinecrest Schools has two requirements: (1) prevent unauthorized visitors from entering a network equipment room, and (2) avoid allowing untrusted access ports to forward forged DHCP server responses. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs; then mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted.
  2. First, match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients; then write an extended ACL permitting the host/source and destination subnet with appropriate transport.
  3. First, apply ip access-group ACLNAME in on the selected interface; then mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted.
  4. First, use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs; then enable DHCP snooping globally but trust every user-facing access port, including the port connected to the unapproved DHCP server.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. (2) Enable DHCP snooping globally and on the protected VLAN; trust only approved server/relay uplinks while leaving user-facing ports untrusted. On supported Cisco switches, trusted interfaces alone do not activate snooping, and a rogue server response on an untrusted access port must be dropped. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients is for troubleshoot client association failure when the WLC has an incorrect pre-shared key, and Write an extended ACL permitting the host/source and destination subnet with appropriate transport is for allow one IPv4 source host to reach a management subnet while denying others. WPA2-Personal handshake succeeds only when both sides derive the same key material. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses attach an IPv4 ACL to traffic entering an interface. The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled. An uplink trust assignment alone does not activate DHCP snooping globally and for the client VLAN.

D:

The first step addresses unauthorized physical entry, but the second makes the attacker-controlled access port trusted. Cisco DHCP snooping then permits server-style replies from that port, defeating the required rogue-DHCP prevention. Leave user ports untrusted and authorize only genuine DHCP server or relay uplinks.

Question 43

A campus router has a connected 192.0.2.0/24 network and an intentionally installed static 192.0.2.77/32 route to Null0 for one quarantined host address. The host sends traffic to 192.0.2.77. What does longest-prefix matching cause?

  1. The connected /24 wins because connected routes always outrank more-specific static entries.
  2. The Null0 route discards every host in 192.0.2.0/24 because it shares the same first three octets.
  3. Traffic to 192.0.2.77 is discarded by the /32 Null0 entry, even though the broader /24 is connected.
  4. The router load-balances across Null0 and the connected interface for the quarantined host.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both routes can exist; the single-host discard entry is more specific than the connected subnet. It affects only the quarantined address, not the entire connected LAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Route preference for the same prefix is distinct from forwarding selection between /32 and /24 matches.

B:

A /32 matches only 192.0.2.77; other hosts use the connected subnet route.

D:

Two matching routes with different prefix lengths do not form an equal-cost forwarding set.

Question 44

On an OSPF broadcast LAN, R1 has router ID 10.255.0.200 and interface priority 0, while R2 has priority 10 and R3 has priority 5. There is no current DR or BDR and all neighbors are eligible except as described. Which statement is correct?

  1. R1 must become DR because its router ID is numerically highest.
  2. R1 becomes BDR because an interface priority of zero always means second place.
  3. R1 cannot become DR or BDR while its OSPF interface priority is zero, regardless of having a high router ID.
  4. R2 and R3 also become ineligible because R1 has no election rights.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPF priority zero excludes a router from DR/BDR eligibility. Among eligible routers, priority determines the election before router ID is used to break ties.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Router ID is used as a tiebreaker among eligible candidates, not as a way around priority-zero exclusion.

B:

Zero is ineligible, not a low but eligible priority.

D:

One router’s priority-zero setting does not prevent other neighbors from electing DR and BDR.

Question 45

A small office WLC must present SSID CORP-330 using WPA2-Personal for authorized clients and bridge data into VLAN 136. Which GUI change meets BOTH requirements?

  1. Enable WLAN CORP-330 as open with no link encryption
  2. Create WLAN CORP-330 but disable the WLAN and leave it unassigned
  3. Create WLAN CORP-330, map it to VLAN 1 instead of VLAN 136
  4. Create/enable WLAN CORP-330, map it to VLAN 136, and set WPA2-PSK with the approved shared key

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The enabled WLAN, correct client VLAN mapping and WPA2-Personal pre-shared key are required together.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An open SSID does not provide the required WPA2-Personal encryption.

B:

A disabled WLAN does not accept client associations; creating its SSID alone does not make it available to authorized wireless users.

C:

An incorrect VLAN mapping places wireless clients into the wrong wired broadcast domain.

Question 46

A workstation has 10.9.181.36/29 on an Ethernet LAN. Which proposed default gateway IP is inside its subnet and is an ordinary usable host address?

  1. 10.9.181.33
  2. 10.9.181.40
  3. 10.9.181.31
  4. 10.9.181.39

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

10.9.181.33 is inside 10.9.181.32/29, is neither network nor broadcast, and is usable as an on-link router address.

Incorrect Answers

B:

10.9.181.40 is the network, directed broadcast or an address outside 10.9.181.32/29, so it is not the correct on-link gateway option.

C:

10.9.181.31 is the network, directed broadcast or an address outside 10.9.181.32/29, so it is not the correct on-link gateway option.

D:

10.9.181.39 is the network, directed broadcast or an address outside 10.9.181.32/29, so it is not the correct on-link gateway option.

Question 47

A network upgrade at Cascade Health has two requirements: (1) explain why two redundant routers alone do not automatically preserve the clients' default gateway, and (2) recognize a standby gateway takeover after the active router fails. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, configure an FHRP such as HSRP or VRRP on the gateway VLAN; then configure ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1.
  2. First, configure an FHRP such as HSRP or VRRP on the gateway VLAN; then expect an FHRP backup peer to assume the virtual gateway role.
  3. First, compare administrative distances of static 1 and OSPF 110; then expect an FHRP backup peer to assume the virtual gateway role.
  4. First, distinguish connected C entries from O or S routes; then use router ospf with network statements and wildcard masks for area 0.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Without a virtual gateway mechanism, loss of the configured single default gateway can strand clients. (2) First-hop redundancy coordinates gateway ownership and failover for attached hosts. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses install a static default IPv4 route to upstream neighbor 192.0.2.1. The all-zero destination and mask define the IPv4 default route via the next hop. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses choose a static route over an OSPF route to the exact same prefix when both are valid. Administrative distance selects the preferred source of identical-prefix routes before comparing metrics. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Distinguish connected C entries from O or S routes is for interpret a directly connected interface network versus remote learned network, and Use router ospf with network statements and wildcard masks for area 0 is for enable single-area OSPF on matching IPv4 interfaces. Directly connected prefixes have an attached interface, while remote routes require a next hop or recursion. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 48

An operations ticket for Hillcrest Utilities has two requirements: (1) limit the blast radius of a faulty automation deployment, and (2) identify a REST response indicating the caller lacks valid authentication. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution; then recognize HTTP 401 Unauthorized and inspect credentials.
  2. First, use a JSON array enclosed in square brackets; then use a JSON number without quotation marks when the schema expects a number.
  3. First, roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution; then use controlled network automation with validated templates.
  4. First, use JSON boolean true or false without quotation marks; then recognize HTTP 401 Unauthorized and inspect credentials.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Staged automation reduces the number of devices affected by an unexpected template error. (2) 401 commonly indicates absent/invalid authentication, while 403 often signals insufficient authorization. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use a JSON array enclosed in square brackets is for represent an ordered collection of network interfaces in JSON, and Use a JSON number without quotation marks when the schema expects a number is for interpret a numeric interface speed in a JSON response. JSON arrays contain ordered elements which can be objects, scalars or other arrays. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses reduce manual repeated VLAN configuration errors across many devices. Automation applies repeatable tested configuration rather than relying on individually typed changes. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses represent the true/false state of an API interface property. JSON has native boolean literals distinct from string values. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 49

A network upgrade at North Quay Finance has two requirements: (1) resolve why a moved host is still associated with an old switch port, and (2) run isolated guest operating systems on shared physical hardware. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, use show mac address-table to inspect learned entries; then run ip address show on Linux.
  2. First, inspect MAC table relearning and dynamic aging; then use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines.
  3. First, inspect MAC table relearning and dynamic aging; then use a cloud-hosted deployment with routed connectivity.
  4. First, inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters; then use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) The switch relearns a source MAC when frames arrive on the new port and ages idle entries. (2) Server virtualization separates VM operating systems while sharing physical CPU and memory. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use show mac address-table to inspect learned entries is for find a host's VLAN and learned switchport from its MAC address, and Run ip address show on Linux is for show the assigned IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on a Linux interface. The MAC table lists forwarding entries indexed by destination MAC and VLAN. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses place applications on remotely managed cloud compute instead of owned data-center hardware. Cloud resources are operated on provider infrastructure rather than on premises. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses diagnose rising CRC/FCS errors on one access port. Corrupt Ethernet frames commonly indicate physical media, cabling, or signaling faults. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 50

A change advisory for Eastbrook Labs has two requirements: (1) run a long-distance optical link requiring low dispersion, and (2) determine which network a configured IPv4 host belongs to. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture
  2. Use compatible single-mode fiber transceivers and fiber
  3. Use the service set identifier or SSID
  4. Use scutil --dns on macOS
  5. Apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (1): Single-mode fiber carries one principal propagation mode and supports long distances with appropriate optics. The other outcome needs its separate action.

E:

Correct for outcome (2): The IPv4 network address is the bitwise AND of the IP address and subnet mask. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture is for separate access, aggregation, and backbone roles in a large campus. Separate tiers scale policy aggregation and fast backbone transport independently. This is not one of the two required changes.

C:

Not selected: Use the service set identifier or SSID is for identify the broadcast identifier clients select to join a WLAN. An SSID is the logical wireless network name advertised or provisioned to clients. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

D:

Not selected: Use scutil --dns on macOS is for inspect DNS resolver settings on a macOS client. scutil --dns reports the active macOS DNS resolver configuration. This is outside the two requested outcomes.