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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 91

Question 900

A router has a directly connected 10.2.0.0/24 and receives a packet for 10.2.0.255, the subnet-directed broadcast. Which statement distinguishes that address from an ordinary unicast host?

  1. It is the /24 network identifier and therefore has all host bits zero
  2. It is the directed broadcast address for that /24 and not an assignable individual host address.
  3. It is a regular unicast device address because it belongs numerically to /24
  4. It is an OSPF router ID that the forwarding table automatically discovers

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

All host bits are 1 in 10.2.0.255/24. Routers generally do not forward directed broadcasts by default due to abuse risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

10.2.0.0 is the network identifier; .255 has all host bits set.

C:

The final address of a conventional /24 is reserved as the directed broadcast.

D:

An address ending in .255 is not inherently an OSPF router ID and its role here is broadcast.

Question 901

Stonebridge Learning needs to avoid exposing Cisco discovery information on an untrusted edge link. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Set the opposite peer to LACP active
  2. Use a supported monitor-mode AP
  3. Disable CDP on that specific interface
  4. Recognize VLAN 1 as the default access VLAN

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Passive/ passive cannot initiate an LACP exchange, while an active side can negotiate with passive. That is not sufficient here: Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port.

B:

A monitor-mode radio can scan spectrum and clients for management/security without providing ordinary access. That is not sufficient here: Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port.

D:

Cisco default Layer 2 switchports belong to VLAN 1 until explicitly assigned otherwise. That is not sufficient here: Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port.

Question 902

A branch design for Orion Shipping has two requirements: (1) authenticate a device without managing a shared human password, and (2) reduce password reuse across device administrators. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted; then deny TCP destination port 23 with the intended host match, and permit TCP 22 as required.
  2. First, use an approved certificate-based device identity; then recognize WPA as older and prefer stronger supported alternatives.
  3. First, use authentication as the first AAA function; then apply unique credentials with a password manager and rotation policy.
  4. First, use an approved certificate-based device identity; then apply unique credentials with a password manager and rotation policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Certificates bind cryptographic credentials to a trusted issuing authority and verified identity. (2) Unique secrets prevent one compromise from automatically exposing all devices. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted is for avoid allowing untrusted access ports to forward forged DHCP server responses, and Deny TCP destination port 23 with the intended host match, and permit TCP 22 as required is for block only inbound Telnet to a server without blocking SSH. A trusted uplink assignment without global and VLAN DHCP snooping enablement does not itself block rogue server replies on user access ports. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses identify a wireless security mode using legacy TKIP and known weaknesses. WPA introduced improvements over WEP but its TKIP design is weaker than modern WPA2/WPA3. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses verify user identity before permitting an administrative login. Authentication proves who or what is requesting access. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 903

A change request at Eastbrook Labs as part of a security hardening project requires the team to connect enterprise WLAN clients using a passphrase rather than per-user RADIUS credentials. What response best fits this requirement?

  1. Place access switchports in different VLANs
  2. Configure a supported WPA2-Personal PSK WLAN
  3. Enable BPDU Guard on the PortFast edge port
  4. Apply an appropriate WLC wireless QoS profile

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WPA2-Personal authenticates users with the configured shared key, unlike enterprise 802.1X. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN membership creates separate Layer 2 broadcast domains even on the same physical switch. That is not sufficient here: WPA2-Personal authenticates users with the configured shared key, unlike enterprise 802.1X.

C:

BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops. That is not sufficient here: WPA2-Personal authenticates users with the configured shared key, unlike enterprise 802.1X.

D:

Wireless QoS maps traffic classes to airtime/queuing behavior for supported workloads. That is not sufficient here: WPA2-Personal authenticates users with the configured shared key, unlike enterprise 802.1X.

Question 904

R1 is already the stable OSPF DR on a broadcast Ethernet segment. A new R5 joins with higher interface priority while R1 remains up. What should the operator expect from a normal nonpreemptive OSPF DR election?

  1. R1 remains DR until a relevant election event; a higher-priority newcomer does not preempt it immediately.
  2. R5 immediately replaces the DR solely due to its higher priority
  3. Every router tears down all OSPF adjacencies when a newcomer appears
  4. The DR switches to whichever router has the lowest numerical ID

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF DR elections are nonpreemptive on broadcast links, so joining with a high priority does not force out an already functioning DR.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The elected DR is not preempted by a newcomer while the current DR remains in service.

C:

A newly joining router need not force network-wide adjacency teardown.

D:

Lower router ID is not the selection preference; higher ID breaks equal-priority ties.

Question 905

A change request at Baypoint Retail while preparing a network upgrade requires the team to carry multiple VLANs between distribution and access switches. Which option directly addresses the stated need?

  1. Use HTTPS management instead of unencrypted HTTP
  2. Use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP
  3. Use show etherchannel summary
  4. Configure a trunk using 802.1Q with needed allowed VLANs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit. That is not sufficient here: An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link.

B:

An autonomous or locally managed AP does not depend on a separate enterprise WLC for all management. That is not sufficient here: An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link.

C:

The summary displays the port-channel group, protocol and member flags. That is not sufficient here: An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link.

Question 906

A new branch LAN needs at least 112 usable IPv4 host addresses. Which CIDR prefix meets the requirement while reserving the SMALLEST conventional subnet?

  1. /24 (254 usable host IPs)
  2. /27 (30 usable host IPs)
  3. /25 (126 usable host IPs)
  4. /26 (62 usable host IPs)

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /25 supplies 126 usable addresses; /26 is too small, while /24 wastes more addresses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This prefix either cannot hold 112 usable hosts or allocates more addresses than the smallest valid subnet.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “/27 (30 usable host IPs)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “/26 (62 usable host IPs)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 907

Two candidate routes use the exact prefix 198.51.100.0/24 and the same routing protocol, but one path has a lower metric. Assuming equal source preference and valid paths, what does the metric typically influence?

  1. The higher metric always wins to avoid congested low-cost links
  2. The two are discarded because their prefix lengths are identical
  3. The protocol prefers the lower-metric path for that same destination prefix.
  4. The route with the longer written next-hop IP address wins

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Once routes are comparable within the same routing protocol and prefix, the relevant metric ranks candidate paths; prefix length and administrative distance are separate decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Routing metrics express path cost under the protocol; lower is normally preferred.

B:

Routing protocols routinely compare multiple candidate paths to the same prefix.

D:

Text length of an IP address is unrelated to path metric and preference.

Question 908

A network upgrade at Greenfield Services has two requirements: (1) avoid confusing proof of identity with permission to change a VLAN, and (2) avoid allowing untrusted access ports to forward forged DHCP server responses. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, use authenticated encryption on management protocols; then mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted.
  2. First, separate authentication from authorization in AAA; then enable dynamic ARP inspection with valid bindings and trusted infrastructure links.
  3. First, separate authentication from authorization in AAA; then mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted.
  4. First, use accounting in an AAA architecture; then label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A valid credential alone does not entitle a user to modify network configuration. (2) Enable DHCP snooping globally and on the protected VLAN; trust only approved server/relay uplinks while leaving user-facing ports untrusted. On supported Cisco switches, trusted interfaces alone do not activate snooping, and a rogue server response on an untrusted access port must be dropped. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses protect confidentiality of management credentials in transit. Encryption prevents passive observation of session data while authentication limits impersonation. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled. An uplink trust assignment alone does not activate DHCP snooping globally and for the client VLAN.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses stop forged ARP replies claiming the default gateway IP on user access ports. DAI validates ARP address mappings against bindings or approved ARP ACLs. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use accounting in an AAA architecture is for record when an administrator logs in and what actions occurred, and Label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit is for distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it. Accounting generates activity records for later auditing and troubleshooting. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 909

At Baypoint Retail, an engineer must secure browser-based device administration on a WLC. What action meets this technical need?

  1. Disable CDP on that specific interface
  2. Use a supported out-of-band console connection
  3. Use show interfaces trunk
  4. Use HTTPS management instead of unencrypted HTTP

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port. That is not sufficient here: HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit.

B:

A console provides local management access independent of in-band IP reachability. That is not sufficient here: HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit.

C:

The command displays operational trunks, encapsulation/native VLAN and allowed/active VLANs. That is not sufficient here: HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit.

Question 910

An operations ticket for Pinecrest Schools has two requirements: (1) connect two IP subnets and forward packets between them, and (2) run isolated guest operating systems on shared physical hardware. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Identify the address with all host bits set to one
  2. Classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space
  3. Deploy an access point connected to an appropriate switchport
  4. Use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines
  5. Use a router with interfaces or subinterfaces in both routed networks

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Correct for outcome (2): Server virtualization separates VM operating systems while sharing physical CPU and memory. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): Routing selects a next hop from a destination IP prefix instead of forwarding solely by MAC address. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Identify the address with all host bits set to one is for distinguish a directed broadcast from an ordinary host IP. The all-ones host portion represents the subnet-directed broadcast in ordinary IPv4 subnets. This is not one of the two required changes.

B:

Not selected: Classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space is for recognize an RFC1918 address in 10.0.0.0/8. RFC1918 private ranges are not publicly routed on the global internet. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Deploy an access point connected to an appropriate switchport is for provide wireless client association to a wired enterprise LAN. The AP bridges 802.11 client frames to the wired distribution system. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.