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Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 92

Question 910

An operations ticket for Pinecrest Schools has two requirements: (1) connect two IP subnets and forward packets between them, and (2) run isolated guest operating systems on shared physical hardware. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Identify the address with all host bits set to one
  2. Classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space
  3. Deploy an access point connected to an appropriate switchport
  4. Use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines
  5. Use a router with interfaces or subinterfaces in both routed networks

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Correct for outcome (2): Server virtualization separates VM operating systems while sharing physical CPU and memory. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): Routing selects a next hop from a destination IP prefix instead of forwarding solely by MAC address. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Identify the address with all host bits set to one is for distinguish a directed broadcast from an ordinary host IP. The all-ones host portion represents the subnet-directed broadcast in ordinary IPv4 subnets. This is not one of the two required changes.

B:

Not selected: Classify 10/8 as private IPv4 space is for recognize an RFC1918 address in 10.0.0.0/8. RFC1918 private ranges are not publicly routed on the global internet. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Deploy an access point connected to an appropriate switchport is for provide wireless client association to a wired enterprise LAN. The AP bridges 802.11 client frames to the wired distribution system. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 911

Harborview Logistics needs to check the selected route to a destination on Linux. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Run ip route get with the destination IP
  2. Review the negotiated speed and the cable/PHY capabilities on both ends
  3. Use compatible multimode fiber for the specified reach
  4. Use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Linux route lookup reveals the chosen outgoing interface and gateway for that address. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Autonegotiation and cabling quality can constrain the actual operating link speed. That is not sufficient here: Linux route lookup reveals the chosen outgoing interface and gateway for that address.

C:

Multimode fiber and matching optics suit many short data-center or campus uplinks. That is not sufficient here: Linux route lookup reveals the chosen outgoing interface and gateway for that address.

D:

Separate tiers scale policy aggregation and fast backbone transport independently. That is not sufficient here: Linux route lookup reveals the chosen outgoing interface and gateway for that address.

Question 912

An operations ticket for Copperline Studios has two requirements: (1) delete an authorized API resource by its URI, and (2) distinguish an Ansible inventory from an Ansible playbook. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, separate control-plane decisions from data-plane forwarding; then use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks.
  2. First, recognize HTTP status 201 Created where the API follows that convention; then use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource.
  3. First, issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization; then use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks.
  4. First, issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization; then recognize the software-defined network fabric architecture.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) DELETE requests resource removal and must be permitted by the server's policy. (2) Inventory specifies managed endpoints while a playbook expresses operations to perform. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses differentiate route calculation from actual packet switching. The control plane computes state while the data plane forwards packets according to installed entries. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Recognize HTTP status 201 Created where the API follows that convention is for interpret a successful REST resource creation response, and Use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource is for modify selected configuration fields without replacing all others. HTTP 201 indicates a resource was created, often with a Location header. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses name the combination of underlay, overlay, and policy/control services. A fabric integrates physical transport with virtual endpoints and centralized policy. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 913

During a review, the administrator for Stonebridge Learning is asked to verify whether a router has selected a valid NTP peer. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Verify NAT inside/outside roles and route reachability
  2. Build a standard NAT ACL matching only approved inside-local addresses
  3. Inspect show ntp associations and show ntp status
  4. Test SSH to the management IP and inspect VTY access restrictions

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

NTP status shows synchronization state, peers and stratum information. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Correct source selection alone does not establish translation if interfaces and routing are misconfigured. That is not sufficient here: NTP status shows synchronization state, peers and stratum information.

B:

The NAT selection ACL decides which inside sources may be translated using the pool. That is not sufficient here: NTP status shows synchronization state, peers and stratum information.

D:

Remote SSH requires reachable management IP, active SSH service and permitted VTY authentication. That is not sufficient here: NTP status shows synchronization state, peers and stratum information.

Question 914

Two intended single-area OSPFv2 neighbors have compatible IP subnets, areas, authentication and timers, but both advertise the same OSPF router ID after a template was copied. Which corrective action addresses this identity defect?

  1. Set identical DR priorities, which makes duplicate router IDs harmless.
  2. Change only the VLAN name, because OSPF identifies routers by interface description.
  3. Enable interface passive mode on both routers so duplicate router IDs can form FULL adjacency.
  4. Assign distinct OSPF router IDs and apply the change through the supported process restart or reinitialization procedure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF identifies routers by unique router IDs. Duplicate IDs can disrupt neighbor formation and LSDB identity; correct IDs and reinitialize the process as required.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Election priorities are independent from the uniqueness requirement for OSPF router IDs.

B:

A VLAN name has no bearing on the OSPF router ID fields in adjacency messages.

C:

Passive mode prevents Hellos; it does not allow duplicate router IDs to form a FULL adjacency.

Question 915

A static route on an Ethernet broadcast network explicitly names both the correct outgoing interface GigabitEthernet0/1 and the reachable next-hop IP 192.0.2.6. What is this style of route intended to clarify?

  1. A fully specified static route identifies both the path interface and the next-hop router for forwarding.
  2. It instructs the router to use both interfaces as equal-cost next hops.
  3. It converts the static route into a learned OSPF neighbor route.
  4. It disables ARP for all Ethernet destinations behind the gateway.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The interface binds forwarding to the intended link while the next-hop address identifies the adjacent router, avoiding ambiguity associated with interface-only Ethernet routes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

One interface and one next-hop address identify a single adjacency, not two forwarding routes.

C:

Adding interface scope does not activate a dynamic routing protocol.

D:

Ethernet next-hop forwarding normally still resolves the adjacent gateway MAC address through ARP.

Question 916

A network upgrade at Hillcrest Utilities has two requirements: (1) identify the route of last resort in an IPv4 routing table, and (2) prevent an interface from sending OSPF hello packets while still advertising its connected network. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort; then configure passive-interface on the relevant OSPF interface.
  2. First, find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort; then configure an FHRP such as HSRP or VRRP on the gateway VLAN.
  3. First, look for a C route in show ip route; then configure passive-interface on the relevant OSPF interface.
  4. First, use OSPF interface path cost for SPF path choice and AD for source preference; then use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A default route handles destinations not covered by a more-specific installed route. (2) Passive interfaces suppress OSPF neighbor hello formation while eligible network prefixes remain advertised. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses explain why two redundant routers alone do not automatically preserve the clients' default gateway. Without a virtual gateway mechanism, loss of the configured single default gateway can strand clients. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses identify whether a connected route exists for a locally configured interface subnet. A connected route is installed for an operational interface's configured network prefix. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use OSPF interface path cost for SPF path choice and AD for source preference is for avoid confusing OSPF routing cost with administrative distance, and Use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop is for configure a static host route to one IPv4 server at 198.51.100.77. OSPF metric selects routes within OSPF, while AD selects between separate routing sources. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 917

Hillcrest Utilities needs to shut an edge port immediately if an unexpected switch BPDU arrives. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Use a controller-based WLAN architecture
  2. Enable BPDU Guard on the PortFast edge port
  3. Enable Root Guard on the intended designated port
  4. Configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lightweight APs and a controller separate centralized policy/control from radio client access. That is not sufficient here: BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops.

C:

Root Guard holds the port in a root-inconsistent state if superior BPDUs arrive. That is not sufficient here: BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops.

D:

Enterprise WLAN security uses 802.1X/EAP against an authentication server. That is not sufficient here: BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops.

Question 918

A broadcast OSPF segment has a functioning DR and BDR. The DR fails and the BDR is still eligible and reachable. What role transition is normally expected?

  1. The existing BDR takes over the DR role and another eligible router can be elected BDR.
  2. No router can forward until the original DR returns
  3. All remaining routers permanently stay DROther despite the failure
  4. The lowest-priority router becomes DR to minimize control traffic

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A backup designated router is maintained to support takeover when the DR becomes unavailable; this avoids selecting a new primary entirely from scratch on every failure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A functioning BDR is specifically intended to take over when the DR fails.

C:

Election behavior can promote an eligible BDR and choose its replacement.

D:

The backup designated router has priority as the successor, not the lowest-priority node.

Question 919

An acceptance check at North Quay Finance has two requirements: (1) reject unsecured wireless client associations on a protected SSID, and (2) publish a wireless network name for corporate users from a WLC. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Set the opposite peer to LACP active
  2. Create and enable the WLAN/SSID in the controller GUI
  3. Enable BPDU Guard on the PortFast edge port
  4. Enable a supported protected authentication and encryption policy on the WLAN
  5. Set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (2): The WLAN profile binds an SSID to its wireless security and policy configuration. It complements the first required control.

D:

Correct for outcome (1): A secure SSID must negotiate the configured credentials and cipher before passing client data. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Set the opposite peer to LACP active is for form an LACP channel where one side is passive. Passive/ passive cannot initiate an LACP exchange, while an active side can negotiate with passive. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

C:

Not selected: Enable BPDU Guard on the PortFast edge port is for shut an edge port immediately if an unexpected switch BPDU arrives. BPDU Guard error-disables a protected edge port receiving a BPDU to prevent accidental loops. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

E:

Not selected: Set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges is for reduce the chance of an unintended access switch becoming STP root. STP root election prefers the lowest bridge ID, so priority controls root placement. This is not one of the two required changes.

Question 920

Two Cisco switches have VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 configured. Gi1/0/48 is administratively set to access mode on one end and trunk mode on the other, and only VLAN 10 communication works. What is the primary correction for carrying both VLANs over this link?

  1. Change the native VLAN to 20 on the access-mode end while leaving the port in access mode.
  2. Create an additional IP default route on each switch instead of correcting Layer 2 trunking.
  3. Configure the interswitch uplink to operate as an 802.1Q trunk on both ends, then verify the needed VLANs are allowed.
  4. Remove VLAN 20 from the permitted list on both ends to avoid the mismatch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A port operating as access cannot carry two separate tagged client VLANs; the link must be consistently trunked.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A native-VLAN setting does not make an access-mode port carry multiple tagged VLANs.

B:

Routing entries cannot substitute for a correctly configured multi-VLAN Layer 2 uplink.

D:

Removing VLAN 20 prevents the required VLAN from traversing the trunk.