McAfee Secure

Microsoft MS-102 Bundle

Exam Code: MS-102

Exam Name Microsoft 365 Administrator

Certification Provider: Microsoft

Corresponding Certification: Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert

Microsoft MS-102 Bundle $44.99

100% Microsoft MS-102 Guaranteed Success With Testking Training Materials

Get Real MS-102 Exam Questions & Expert Verified Answers as Experienced on the Real Exam!

  • Questions & Answers

    MS-102 Questions & Answers

    473 Questions & Answers

    The ultimate exam preparation tool, Questions & Answers mirrors the actual MS-102 exam while allowing you to hone and measure every aspect of your test-taking ability.

  • MS-102 Video Course

    MS-102 Training Course

    61 Video Lectures

    MS-102 Video Course is developed by Microsoft Professionals to help you pass the MS-102 exam.

    Description

    This course will improve your knowledge and skills required to pass Microsoft 365 Administrator exam.
  • Study Guide

    MS-102 Study Guide

    298 PDF Pages

    Developed by industry experts, this 298-page guide spells out in painstaking detail all of the information you need to ace MS-102 exam.

Microsoft 365 Administrator (MS-102) Practice Tests

Satisfaction Guaranteed

Money Back Guarantee

Testking provides hassle-free money back guarantee with our products. That is because we have 100% trust in the abilities of our professional and experience product team, and our record is a proof of that.

99.6% PASS RATE
Total Cost: $194.97
Bundle Price: $149.98

Purchase Individually

  • Questions & Answers

    Questions & Answers

    473 Questions

    $124.99
  • MS-102 Video Course

    Training Course

    61 Video Lectures

    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    Study Guide

    298 PDF Pages

    $29.99

Microsoft MS-102 Practice Test 72

Question 710

A remote laptop is reimaged and disappears from Defender reporting because onboarding was performed only once manually. The change owner plans to: Deploy Defender for Endpoint onboarding through a persistent approved endpoint-management policy. Which validation or governance guardrail is best suited to the proposed fix?

  1. Test representative devices before broad security profile changes.
  2. Create exception owners and review automated action outcomes regularly.
  3. Schedule patches with application owner testing and a defined emergency process.
  4. Test duplicate device identities and offboarding of obsolete records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The specific rollout control is Test duplicate device identities and offboarding of obsolete records. It protects the proposed intervention 'Deploy Defender for Endpoint onboarding through a persistent approved endpoint-management policy.' against the failure mode that one-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices. Success should also be checked through: A newly provisioned laptop automatically reappears in Defender after required policy processing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: One-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices. The applicable safeguard is: Test duplicate device identities and offboarding of obsolete records.

B:

Automated endpoint actions can interrupt high-availability or safety-sensitive systems. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: One-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices. The applicable safeguard is: Test duplicate device identities and offboarding of obsolete records.

C:

Raw vulnerability counts do not rank the practical business impact of each exposure. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: One-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices. The applicable safeguard is: Test duplicate device identities and offboarding of obsolete records.

Question 711

A user is repeatedly asked for MFA after a tenant Conditional Access change, but support assumes the user has forgotten the password. The change owner plans to: Inspect sign-in logs, authentication details and Conditional Access results for the affected identity. Which validation or governance guardrail is best suited to the proposed fix?

  1. Use a pilot policy exclusion or report-only assessment rather than disabling tenant-wide protections.
  2. Check registration requirements and exclude high-privilege identities from weak recovery paths.
  3. Advise supported reauthentication and investigate persistence before repeated password changes.
  4. Prevent lockouts by excluding emergency accounts from fragile registration dependencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The specific rollout control is Use a pilot policy exclusion or report-only assessment rather than disabling tenant-wide protections. It protects the proposed intervention 'Inspect sign-in logs, authentication details and Conditional Access results for the affected identity.' against the failure mode that mFA prompts and conditional access failures are not necessarily password validation errors. Success should also be checked through: The log identifies the specific policy or registration requirement that caused the challenge.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An enabled cloud identity does not automatically imply SSPR is licensed and configured. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: MFA prompts and conditional access failures are not necessarily password validation errors. The applicable safeguard is: Use a pilot policy exclusion or report-only assessment rather than disabling tenant-wide protections.

C:

Resetting a password does not automatically refresh every device's stored credentials or existing session. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: MFA prompts and conditional access failures are not necessarily password validation errors. The applicable safeguard is: Use a pilot policy exclusion or report-only assessment rather than disabling tenant-wide protections.

D:

Authentication method registration alone does not require using MFA for every application. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: MFA prompts and conditional access failures are not necessarily password validation errors. The applicable safeguard is: Use a pilot policy exclusion or report-only assessment rather than disabling tenant-wide protections.

Question 712

A Defender for Endpoint setting is assigned through Intune but a device reports conflicting local antivirus configuration. The team believes no other action is necessary. Which failure mechanism best matches the observed facts?

  1. One-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices.
  2. Overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings.
  3. Security patching can create application incompatibility even when the patch is technically necessary.
  4. Device telemetry enrollment and advanced endpoint response administration are different permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The actual failure mechanism is Overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings. Its relevance follows from the stated tenant facts, not just a generic security recommendation. Correct it by investigate effective endpoint policies and resolve configuration precedence for the affected managed device. Then verify: The device reports the intended managed policy after synchronization without unexpected local overrides.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One-time manual onboarding is not a reliable fleet lifecycle process for reimaged devices. The stated symptoms instead indicate that overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings.

C:

Security patching can create application incompatibility even when the patch is technically necessary. The stated symptoms instead indicate that overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings.

D:

Device telemetry enrollment and advanced endpoint response administration are different permissions. The stated symptoms instead indicate that overlapping local and centrally managed security controls can cause conflicting effective settings.

Question 713

A tenant switches to Defender XDR unified role-based access control while retaining overlapping legacy security groups. The change owner plans to: Review the active Defender unified RBAC assignments and retire conflicting legacy delegations where appropriate. Which validation or governance guardrail is best suited to the proposed fix?

  1. Test dynamic membership delays and protect attributes used by scoping rules.
  2. Test which targets the role can reset and protect emergency-access accounts separately.
  3. Use a privilege comparison matrix and monitor attempted out-of-scope actions.
  4. Test migration with representative roles before removing production responders' access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The specific rollout control is Test migration with representative roles before removing production responders' access. It protects the proposed intervention 'Review the active Defender unified RBAC assignments and retire conflicting legacy delegations where appropriate.' against the failure mode that parallel legacy and unified security assignments can create unclear effective access. Success should also be checked through: Effective permission testing matches the designated incident response duties without unexpected broad powers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Administrative unit scope depends on accurate object membership, not merely branch naming conventions. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Parallel legacy and unified security assignments can create unclear effective access. The applicable safeguard is: Test migration with representative roles before removing production responders' access.

B:

Global Administrator has far broader powers than routine delegated helpdesk work requires. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Parallel legacy and unified security assignments can create unclear effective access. The applicable safeguard is: Test migration with representative roles before removing production responders' access.

C:

Administrative units do not automatically narrow all highly privileged tenant-wide role assignments. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Parallel legacy and unified security assignments can create unclear effective access. The applicable safeguard is: Test migration with representative roles before removing production responders' access.

Question 714

A sales support address must be answered by several employees without signing into a separately licensed individual account. What should the administrator do FIRST to correct the problem?

  1. Create a shared mailbox and grant the intended Full Access and Send As permissions separately.
  2. Coordinate the approved mailbox retention or conversion pathway before reclaiming a workload license.
  3. Assign a supported license bundle or group-based licensing policy with required service plans enabled.
  4. Create an appropriate mail contact in the Microsoft 365 admin center instead of a licensed user account.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The deciding issue is mailbox access and sending as that mailbox are distinct delegated permissions. The action 'Create a shared mailbox and grant the intended Full Access and Send As permissions separately.' targets that issue rather than a neighboring Microsoft 365 workload. Confirm it by checking: An authorized delegate opens the shared mailbox and sends a reply with the approved sender identity.

Incorrect Answers

B:

License changes can affect data access and mailbox lifecycle despite separate retention requirements. That concern does not account for the stated failure: Mailbox access and sending as that mailbox are distinct delegated permissions. The relevant design change is: Create a shared mailbox and grant the intended Full Access and Send As permissions separately.

C:

An assigned SKU without the intended enabled service plan can leave a workload unavailable. The problem described here is that mailbox access and sending as that mailbox are distinct delegated permissions.

D:

Mail contacts are address-book objects and are not equivalent to interactive Entra workforce accounts. The problem described here is that mailbox access and sending as that mailbox are distinct delegated permissions.

Question 715

A risk committee combines Defender endpoint findings with cloud app risk indicators but treats the report as a real-time SIEM stream. The administrator proposes: Explain Defender XDR reporting scope and choose supported hunting or incident feeds for time-critical investigation. What test distinguishes successful remediation from an unrelated improvement?

  1. A test sign-in confirms the required authentication strength rather than a checklist-only completion.
  2. The committee receives trend reports while a separate alerting route handles timely critical incidents.
  3. Affected assets are identified and a patch or mitigation plan reflects verified exploit relevance.
  4. The final classification cites actual malicious encryption or extortion evidence rather than a campaign label alone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The administrator plans 'Explain Defender XDR reporting scope and choose supported hunting or incident feeds for time-critical investigation.' to correct the fact that periodic analytical reports and real-time detection pipelines are different operational services. The direct acceptance evidence is The committee receives trend reports while a separate alerting route handles timely critical incidents. This observation is linked to this change's intended outcome.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A test sign-in confirms the required authentication strength rather than a checklist-only completion. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: the committee receives trend reports while a separate alerting route handles timely critical incidents.

C:

Affected assets are identified and a patch or mitigation plan reflects verified exploit relevance. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: the committee receives trend reports while a separate alerting route handles timely critical incidents.

D:

The final classification cites actual malicious encryption or extortion evidence rather than a campaign label alone. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: the committee receives trend reports while a separate alerting route handles timely critical incidents.

Question 716

A simulation campaign has realistic phishing pages but its tracking redirects users to an unrelated unapproved external domain. The administrator proposes: Use supported Defender attack simulation payload and landing-page configuration approved by the organization. What test distinguishes successful remediation from an unrelated improvement?

  1. A test recipient completes the exercise through the intended training environment without external credential capture.
  2. A test campaign produces actionable notifications without excessive duplicate incident tickets.
  3. The analyst links the event to a specific policy condition and affected sending identity.
  4. The provider receives the actionable alert identifier without unauthorized message-body disclosure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The administrator plans 'Use supported Defender attack simulation payload and landing-page configuration approved by the organization.' to correct the fact that phishing simulations must not expose passwords to uncontrolled third-party services. The direct acceptance evidence is A test recipient completes the exercise through the intended training environment without external credential capture. This observation is linked to this change's intended outcome.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A test campaign produces actionable notifications without excessive duplicate incident tickets. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test recipient completes the exercise through the intended training environment without external credential capture.

C:

The analyst links the event to a specific policy condition and affected sending identity. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test recipient completes the exercise through the intended training environment without external credential capture.

D:

The provider receives the actionable alert identifier without unauthorized message-body disclosure. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test recipient completes the exercise through the intended training environment without external credential capture.

Question 717

A data steward must configure Microsoft Purview retention policies but their Security Reader role permits only viewing. What should the administrator do FIRST to correct the problem?

  1. Assign a supported Microsoft Purview role group with the required compliance management capability.
  2. Use a separately scoped workload identity or supported automation role rather than treating PIM user activation as perpetual service access.
  3. Scope supported Entra roles with an administrative unit containing the authorized regional users.
  4. Activate the eligible PIM role through the required workflow and verify activation requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The deciding issue is security and compliance role groups are not interchangeable with read-only directory roles. The action 'Assign a supported Microsoft Purview role group with the required compliance management capability.' targets that issue rather than a neighboring Microsoft 365 workload. Confirm it by checking: The steward creates a test retention policy but cannot administer unrelated Exchange transport settings.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Just-in-time human role activation is not a substitute for managed service identity permissions. The problem described here is that security and compliance role groups are not interchangeable with read-only directory roles.

C:

Administrative units can constrain some role assignments rather than granting every role tenant-wide. The problem described here is that security and compliance role groups are not interchangeable with read-only directory roles.

D:

PIM eligibility is not the same state as an activated privileged role. The problem described here is that security and compliance role groups are not interchangeable with read-only directory roles.

Question 718

A company wants to stop staff copying confidential Microsoft 365 documents to removable USB drives on managed laptops. The administrator proposes: Configure supported Microsoft Purview Endpoint DLP with enrolled and compatible devices and relevant file activities. What test distinguishes successful remediation from an unrelated improvement?

  1. A labeled or classified model triggers the documented Power BI DLP alert or policy action.
  2. A supervised test shows whether an override is permitted and records the justification as designed.
  3. A test classified file copy to removable storage is blocked or audited according to the policy.
  4. A controlled external message containing test card patterns triggers the expected warning or block.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The administrator plans 'Configure supported Microsoft Purview Endpoint DLP with enrolled and compatible devices and relevant file activities.' to correct the fact that cloud-location DLP rules alone do not govern all local endpoint file operations. The direct acceptance evidence is A test classified file copy to removable storage is blocked or audited according to the policy. This observation is linked to this change's intended outcome.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A labeled or classified model triggers the documented Power BI DLP alert or policy action. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test classified file copy to removable storage is blocked or audited according to the policy.

B:

A supervised test shows whether an override is permitted and records the justification as designed. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test classified file copy to removable storage is blocked or audited according to the policy.

D:

A controlled external message containing test card patterns triggers the expected warning or block. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a test classified file copy to removable storage is blocked or audited according to the policy.

Question 719

An auditor tests a Conditional Access MFA policy while already holding a valid authentication session and incorrectly declares the policy ineffective. The change owner plans to: Use a controlled fresh sign-in and examine the applied Conditional Access authentication requirement. Which validation or governance guardrail is best suited to the proposed fix?

  1. Avoid exposing breach detection details in end-user messages and retain audit history.
  2. Revoke test sessions only in an approved environment and inspect sign-in token details.
  3. Preserve investigation evidence and require a stronger recovery method where appropriate.
  4. Protect break-glass credentials separately and alert on every emergency sign-in.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The specific rollout control is Revoke test sessions only in an approved environment and inspect sign-in token details. It protects the proposed intervention 'Use a controlled fresh sign-in and examine the applied Conditional Access authentication requirement.' against the failure mode that existing sessions and authentication claims can satisfy controls without an apparent new MFA prompt. Success should also be checked through: The test prompts for the required factor or shows a previously satisfied claim with exact evaluation context.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compromised passwords can be used from ordinary or previously seen network locations. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Existing sessions and authentication claims can satisfy controls without an apparent new MFA prompt. The applicable safeguard is: Revoke test sessions only in an approved environment and inspect sign-in token details.

C:

Identity risk records indicate suspected compromise requiring more than cosmetic profile changes. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Existing sessions and authentication claims can satisfy controls without an apparent new MFA prompt. The applicable safeguard is: Revoke test sessions only in an approved environment and inspect sign-in token details.

D:

Tenant-wide access control errors can lock out normal administrators without a recovery path. The proposed change also needs protection against this risk: Existing sessions and authentication claims can satisfy controls without an apparent new MFA prompt. The applicable safeguard is: Revoke test sessions only in an approved environment and inspect sign-in token details.

Question 720

A company enables SharePoint retention labels and assumes it now has rapid point-in-time recovery of every deleted site. The administrator proposes: Configure Microsoft 365 Backup where supported for eligible SharePoint, OneDrive or Exchange workloads. What test distinguishes successful remediation from an unrelated improvement?

  1. A controlled recovery retrieves a supported item from the intended protected recovery point.
  2. The subsidiary can administer its own tenant without granting administrators access to the parent company's directory.
  3. The domain becomes verifiable in the target tenant only after source references and ownership conflicts are resolved.
  4. The service-health incident displays affected workloads and administrative updates corresponding to the user reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The administrator plans 'Configure Microsoft 365 Backup where supported for eligible SharePoint, OneDrive or Exchange workloads.' to correct the fact that retention governance and operational backup restoration have different objectives and recovery mechanisms. The direct acceptance evidence is A controlled recovery retrieves a supported item from the intended protected recovery point. This observation is linked to this change's intended outcome.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The subsidiary can administer its own tenant without granting administrators access to the parent company's directory. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a controlled recovery retrieves a supported item from the intended protected recovery point.

C:

The domain becomes verifiable in the target tenant only after source references and ownership conflicts are resolved. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a controlled recovery retrieves a supported item from the intended protected recovery point.

D:

The service-health incident displays affected workloads and administrative updates corresponding to the user reports. However, that result would not establish the required outcome: a controlled recovery retrieves a supported item from the intended protected recovery point.