McAfee Secure

Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

Cisco 200-301 Bundle $44.99
200-301 Sample 1 200-301 Sample 2 200-301 Sample 3 200-301 Sample 4 200-301 Sample 5 200-301 Sample 6 200-301 Sample 7 200-301 Sample 8 200-301 Sample 9 200-301 Sample 10

100% Cisco 200-301 Guaranteed Success With Testking Training Materials

Get Real 200-301 Exam Questions & Expert Verified Answers as Experienced on the Real Exam!

  • Questions & Answers

    200-301 Questions & Answers

    760 Questions & Answers

    The ultimate exam preparation tool, Questions & Answers mirrors the actual 200-301 exam while allowing you to hone and measure every aspect of your test-taking ability.

  • 200-301 Video Course

    200-301 Training Course

    271 Video Lectures

    200-301 Video Course is developed by Cisco Professionals to help you pass the 200-301 exam.

    Description

    This course will improve your knowledge and skills required to pass Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam.
  • Study Guide

    200-301 Study Guide

    1969 PDF Pages

    Developed by industry experts, this 1969-page guide spells out in painstaking detail all of the information you need to ace 200-301 exam.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests

Satisfaction Guaranteed

Money Back Guarantee

Testking provides hassle-free money back guarantee with our products. That is because we have 100% trust in the abilities of our professional and experience product team, and our record is a proof of that.

99.6% PASS RATE
Total Cost: $194.97
Bundle Price: $149.98

Purchase Individually

  • Questions & Answers

    Questions & Answers

    760 Questions

    $124.99
  • 200-301 Video Course

    Training Course

    271 Video Lectures

    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    Study Guide

    1969 PDF Pages

    $29.99

Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 104

Question 1030

A network upgrade at Harborview Logistics has two requirements: (1) distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it, and (2) disable a switchport after a port-security violation. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit
  2. Recognize WPA as older and prefer stronger supported alternatives
  3. Apply unique credentials with a password manager and rotation policy
  4. Inspect show access-lists counters on the device
  5. Use switchport port-security violation shutdown

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (1): A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure. The other outcome needs its separate action.

E:

Correct for outcome (2): The shutdown violation mode puts the protected interface into an error-disabled state on violation. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Not selected: Recognize WPA as older and prefer stronger supported alternatives is for identify a wireless security mode using legacy TKIP and known weaknesses. WPA introduced improvements over WEP but its TKIP design is weaker than modern WPA2/WPA3. This is not one of the two required changes.

C:

Not selected: Apply unique credentials with a password manager and rotation policy is for reduce password reuse across device administrators. Unique secrets prevent one compromise from automatically exposing all devices. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

D:

Not selected: Inspect show access-lists counters on the device is for verify which ACL entries have matches during traffic tests. IOS ACL match counters can show which permit or deny clauses see selected traffic. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

Question 1031

A network upgrade at Hillcrest Utilities has two requirements: (1) forward an IP packet arriving for the router's local interface address, and (2) configure a static host route to one IPv4 server at 198.51.100.77. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, configure ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1; then use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop.
  2. First, deliver it to the local protocol stack rather than remote routing; then use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop.
  3. First, compare OSPF path metrics for the eligible equal-distance protocol routes; then distinguish connected C entries from O or S routes.
  4. First, deliver it to the local protocol stack rather than remote routing; then find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A local host route represents the router's own address, not a remote network. (2) A /32 host route matches exactly one IPv4 destination. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses install a static default IPv4 route to upstream neighbor 192.0.2.1. The all-zero destination and mask define the IPv4 default route via the next hop. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Compare OSPF path metrics for the eligible equal-distance protocol routes is for choose between OSPF routes for the same prefix learned from two paths, and Distinguish connected C entries from O or S routes is for interpret a directly connected interface network versus remote learned network. Within one protocol and destination prefix the protocol metric selects preferred path cost. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses identify the route of last resort in an IPv4 routing table. A default route handles destinations not covered by a more-specific installed route. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 1032

A network upgrade at North Quay Finance has two requirements: (1) enforce documented security rules across an organization, and (2) avoid unattended visitors modifying shared network workstations. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Publish clear policies and train staff on approved handling procedures
  2. Require screen locking and restricted physical device access
  3. Mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted
  4. Configure switchport port-security maximum 2 on the access interface
  5. Enforce multifactor authentication where available

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (1): Security programs combine policy, awareness and repeatable operational practice. The other outcome needs its separate action.

B:

Correct for outcome (2): Basic endpoint hygiene and physical controls help protect logged-in administrative sessions. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Not selected: Mark only the legitimate server-facing or relay uplink as DHCP snooping trusted is for avoid allowing untrusted access ports to forward forged DHCP server responses. A trusted uplink assignment without global and VLAN DHCP snooping enablement does not itself block rogue server replies on user access ports. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

D:

Not selected: Configure switchport port-security maximum 2 on the access interface is for limit an access switchport to two learned endpoint MAC addresses. Port security can cap how many source MAC addresses the port accepts. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

E:

Not selected: Enforce multifactor authentication where available is for raise security of admin sign-in beyond only a password. Multiple independent factors reduce reliance on one compromised secret. This is not one of the two required changes.

Question 1033

For the identical prefix 172.23.62.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.170); OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.42); floating static (AD 200, via 192.0.2.155); floating static route was withdrawn. Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.42)
  2. external BGP (AD 20, via 192.0.2.170)
  3. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  4. floating static (AD 200, via 192.0.2.155)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

external BGP (AD 20) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over OSPF (AD 110).

Incorrect Answers

A:

This OSPF route has AD 110, higher than the eligible external BGP (AD 20); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

C:

The external BGP (AD 20) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

D:

The floating static route was explicitly withdrawn; its former AD 200 does not make it an eligible candidate for this decision.

Question 1034

A change request at Oakbridge University during a branch cutover requires the team to recognize an RFC1918 address in 172.16.0.0/12. Which option directly addresses the stated need?

  1. Use the appropriate FF00::/8 multicast destination
  2. Classify 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 as private
  3. Run ip address show on Linux
  4. Use a WAN transport design with appropriate edge routers

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Only 172.16/12 is private, not all addresses beginning 172. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv6 multicast addresses identify groups, unlike a broadcast address. That is not sufficient here: Only 172.16/12 is private, not all addresses beginning 172.

C:

The ip command displays local interface addresses without assuming legacy ifconfig is installed. That is not sufficient here: Only 172.16/12 is private, not all addresses beginning 172.

D:

WAN connectivity links geographically separated LAN sites via a provider or overlay. That is not sufficient here: Only 172.16/12 is private, not all addresses beginning 172.

Question 1035

A route for destination 192.0.2.0/24 points to next hop 192.0.2.254, but its only resolution path is recursively the same 192.0.2.0/24 route. What forwarding defect should the engineer resolve?

  1. An OSPF area mismatch, because static next-hop resolution requires OSPF
  2. A recursive next-hop dependency with no terminating connected or otherwise valid path.
  3. An Ethernet VLAN native mismatch, even though no switch behavior is described
  4. An IPv4 broadcast limitation requiring all interfaces to use /32

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A next hop cannot resolve through the same unresolved route indefinitely. It must eventually map to a connected adjacency or another valid, terminating route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Static routes do not inherently need an OSPF adjacency for resolution.

C:

A static recursive loop does not, by itself, indicate a VLAN tag mismatch.

D:

Host masks are not a repair for a circular forwarding recursion.

Question 1036

A network upgrade at Stonebridge Learning has two requirements: (1) identify a risk from using poor-quality network telemetry to train AI, and (2) explain why fabric endpoint mobility can work without changing each physical trunk. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines; then use logical overlay endpoint mappings on a reachable underlay.
  2. First, validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines; then roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution.
  3. First, use HTTP POST according to the API contract; then use logical overlay endpoint mappings on a reachable underlay.
  4. First, use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups; then issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Incomplete or biased telemetry can produce misleading predictive network recommendations. (2) Endpoint-to-location mappings decouple service connectivity from physical topology. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses limit the blast radius of a faulty automation deployment. Staged automation reduces the number of devices affected by an unexpected template error. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses create a new resource through a REST API with a request body. POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups is for apply the same network configuration task across devices from an inventory file, and Issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization is for delete an authorized API resource by its URI. Ansible inventories and playbooks run repeatable tasks across selected managed devices. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 1037

For the identical prefix 172.20.226.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.128); connected (AD 0, directly attached interface); internal EIGRP (AD 90, via 192.0.2.58). Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. connected (AD 0, directly attached interface)
  2. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  3. static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.128)
  4. internal EIGRP (AD 90, via 192.0.2.58)

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

connected (AD 0) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over static (AD 1), internal EIGRP (AD 90). A directly connected prefix is attached to a local interface; it does not require a routed next-hop IP.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The connected (AD 0) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

C:

This static route has AD 1, higher than the eligible connected (AD 0); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

D:

This internal EIGRP route has AD 90, higher than the eligible connected (AD 0); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

Question 1038

Four OSPF routers become eligible simultaneously on an Ethernet broadcast segment, with no existing DR/BDR: R1 (priority 50, router ID 10.255.0.122); R2 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.32); R3 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.4); R4 (priority 4, router ID 10.255.0.98). Which router wins designated router election?

  1. R2 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.32)
  2. R3 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.4)
  3. R1 (priority 50, router ID 10.255.0.122)
  4. R4 (priority 4, router ID 10.255.0.98)

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPF broadcast DR election considers eligible nonzero interface priority first, with router ID breaking ties. R1 has the highest eligible priority 50.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This router has zero priority or an inferior priority to the winner and cannot be the elected DR here.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “R3 (priority 10, router ID 10.255.0.4)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “R4 (priority 4, router ID 10.255.0.98)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 1039

Copperline Studios needs to deny one known infected source IP regardless of destination using a simple filter. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Recognize IPsec ESP confidentiality and integrity protection
  2. Enforce multifactor authentication where available
  3. Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs
  4. Use a standard ACL deny for that source IP followed by required permits

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Standard ACLs match IPv4 source addresses rather than destination ports. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ESP can encrypt payloads and provide authenticated integrity for protected packets. That is not sufficient here: Standard ACLs match IPv4 source addresses rather than destination ports.

B:

Multiple independent factors reduce reliance on one compromised secret. That is not sufficient here: Standard ACLs match IPv4 source addresses rather than destination ports.

C:

Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. That is not sufficient here: Standard ACLs match IPv4 source addresses rather than destination ports.

Question 1040

During a review, the administrator for Meridian Insurance is asked to build a small campus with a combined distribution and core layer. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Use the service set identifier or SSID
  2. Make both link ends negotiate or explicitly agree on matching duplex
  3. Use a router with interfaces or subinterfaces in both routed networks
  4. Use a collapsed-core two-tier campus design

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The access layer connects endpoints while the collapsed core aggregates access and provides routing. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An SSID is the logical wireless network name advertised or provisioned to clients. That is not sufficient here: The access layer connects endpoints while the collapsed core aggregates access and provides routing.

B:

A full/half duplex mismatch creates errors and poor performance even if the link stays up. That is not sufficient here: The access layer connects endpoints while the collapsed core aggregates access and provides routing.

C:

Routing selects a next hop from a destination IP prefix instead of forwarding solely by MAC address. That is not sufficient here: The access layer connects endpoints while the collapsed core aggregates access and provides routing.