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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 25

Question 240

A network upgrade at Cascade Health has two requirements: (1) ensure a backup static route does not override a directly connected route to the same prefix, and (2) interpret an L entry for a router's own IPv4 interface address. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, use a higher floating static AD and maintain healthy connected interface; then use ipv6 route ::/0 with outgoing interface and link-local next hop.
  2. First, use a higher floating static AD and maintain healthy connected interface; then recognize a locally originated /32 host route.
  3. First, compare OSPF path metrics for the eligible equal-distance protocol routes; then recognize a locally originated /32 host route.
  4. First, deliver it to the local protocol stack rather than remote routing; then give the backup static route AD higher than OSPF's 110.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Connected routes have distance 0 and normally beat ordinary or floating static alternatives. (2) Local routes identify IP addresses assigned to the router itself. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses configure an IPv6 default route over a known link-local next hop. The egress interface is required to disambiguate a link-local next-hop address. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses choose between OSPF routes for the same prefix learned from two paths. Within one protocol and destination prefix the protocol metric selects preferred path cost. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Deliver it to the local protocol stack rather than remote routing is for forward an IP packet arriving for the router's local interface address, and Give the backup static route AD higher than OSPF's 110 is for provide a static backup only if an OSPF route to the same prefix disappears. A local host route represents the router's own address, not a remote network. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 241

A branch router’s local buffered syslog disappears when the router reboots, preventing investigation of earlier circuit failures. The SOC already operates an approved centralized collector. Which change addresses the evidence-retention gap?

  1. Increase the console logging severity without sending anything to the collector.
  2. Rename the router hostname to include its last reboot timestamp.
  3. Rely only on a larger volatile `logging buffered` allocation and ignore the collector.
  4. Configure the router to forward the required syslog events to the approved remote collector and verify receipt/retention.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Off-device syslog collection retains troubleshooting records beyond the lifetime of a router’s volatile local logging buffer.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Console output does not guarantee durable off-device retention through reboot.

B:

The device name does not preserve historical message content.

C:

A larger volatile buffer can still be lost on reboot; remote collection addresses persistence.

Question 242

An operations ticket for Cedarline Hotels has two requirements: (1) require guaranteed in-order delivery with acknowledgments for a file transfer, and (2) send brief time-sensitive voice media without waiting for retransmissions. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address; then use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines.
  2. First, use TCP with a connection-oriented transport session; then use UDP with an application-appropriate real-time protocol.
  3. First, use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture; then use UDP with an application-appropriate real-time protocol.
  4. First, use TCP with a connection-oriented transport session; then use show ipv6 route.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) TCP provides sequencing, retransmission and flow control that UDP does not guarantee. (2) UDP avoids built-in retransmission delays and reliability is managed by the application. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address is for determine which network a configured IPv4 host belongs to, and Use a hypervisor hosting separate virtual machines is for run isolated guest operating systems on shared physical hardware. The IPv4 network address is the bitwise AND of the IP address and subnet mask. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses separate access, aggregation, and backbone roles in a large campus. Separate tiers scale policy aggregation and fast backbone transport independently. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

D:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses display the IPv6 forwarding table on a Cisco router. The IPv6 routing table exposes connected, static and learned IPv6 destinations. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 243

A branch design for Lighthouse Medical has two requirements: (1) detect anomalous device behavior from a baseline of normal traffic, and (2) avoid trusting an AI-recommended change without checking live configuration. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines
  2. Require validated evidence and human/network policy checks before execution
  3. Keep the underlay network operational for packet transport
  4. Use JSON boolean true or false without quotation marks
  5. Use anomaly detection with representative training or baseline data

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (2): AI suggestions are fallible and should not bypass deterministic authorization or operational verification. It complements the first required control.

E:

Correct for outcome (1): Anomaly detection identifies departures from learned normal patterns for investigation. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines is for identify a risk from using poor-quality network telemetry to train AI. Incomplete or biased telemetry can produce misleading predictive network recommendations. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Keep the underlay network operational for packet transport is for avoid treating a software-defined controller as a replacement for physical forwarding links. Controller-based policies still rely on forwarding infrastructure and physical connectivity. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

D:

Not selected: Use JSON boolean true or false without quotation marks is for represent the true/false state of an API interface property. JSON has native boolean literals distinct from string values. This is not one of the two required changes.

Question 244

An OSPF broadcast segment has elected router R1 as DR and R2 as BDR. R1 fails and R2 remains reachable, while a new router R3 has a higher configured priority. What should happen to the DR role after failure detection?

  1. R3 instantly becomes DR because its priority exceeds R2's.
  2. All router interfaces enter passive mode until R1 returns.
  3. R2 and R3 must wait for a manual OSPF process reset before they can forward any traffic.
  4. The existing BDR R2 takes over as DR, and the remaining eligible routers elect a new BDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The BDR exists to assume DR responsibility after the DR fails; replacement BDR selection follows among eligible routers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A new high-priority router does not displace an existing BDR in the DR takeover transition.

B:

An elected DR failure does not make every LAN interface passive or suppress the other eligible neighbors.

C:

The surviving BDR can assume the DR role after failure detection without manually resetting every process.

Question 245

A change advisory for Granite Works has two requirements: (1) predict upcoming interface congestion from historical telemetry, and (2) understand why a Terraform state file needs secure handling. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, use the underlay network; then protect the Terraform state and its sensitive output values.
  2. First, use predictive analytics or a learned forecasting model; then protect the Terraform state and its sensitive output values.
  3. First, use predictive analytics or a learned forecasting model; then roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution.
  4. First, use JSON null rather than the string "null"; then use before-and-after state validation with explicit invariants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Predictive ML estimates future conditions from measured historical trends. (2) State can contain infrastructure identifiers and sensitive attributes used to track managed resources. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses identify the physical routed transport that carries tunneled traffic between fabric nodes. The underlay provides physical/routed reachability for encapsulated overlay transport. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses limit the blast radius of a faulty automation deployment. Staged automation reduces the number of devices affected by an unexpected template error. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use JSON null rather than the string "null" is for represent an absent optional API field's value, and Use before-and-after state validation with explicit invariants is for verify that a network automation run changed only intended fields. The null literal means no value, while the quoted text is a string. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 246

The router has two valid paths: 203.0.113.0/24 via 192.0.2.1 and 203.0.113.128/25 via 192.0.2.2. Which path is selected for 203.0.113.40?

  1. 203.0.113.128/25 because /25 is always preferred regardless of destination
  2. Both routes are equally eligible because they overlap at the network level
  3. 203.0.113.0/24 via 192.0.2.1
  4. Neither, because a destination must be the first address of a subnet

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The last octet .40 is outside the /25 128–255 range. The /24 is the most specific available prefix that actually matches .40.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A more-specific route wins only when its address range includes the destination; this one does not.

B:

The /25 does not include .40 and cannot be selected for that packet.

D:

Hosts inside a matching network are forwarded; only the prefix boundary defines the route.

Question 247

At North Quay Finance, an engineer must understand Rapid PVST+ alternate-port behavior. Which action directly meets this requirement?

  1. Keep the alternate port discarding until needed
  2. Add routing through an SVI or router gateway
  3. Configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS
  4. Set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An alternate port provides a backup path that does not forward user frames during normal loop-free operation. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A Layer 2 VLAN boundary does not forward IPv4 packets between IP subnets by itself. That is not sufficient here: An alternate port provides a backup path that does not forward user frames during normal loop-free operation.

C:

Enterprise WLAN security uses 802.1X/EAP against an authentication server. That is not sufficient here: An alternate port provides a backup path that does not forward user frames during normal loop-free operation.

D:

STP root election prefers the lowest bridge ID, so priority controls root placement. That is not sufficient here: An alternate port provides a backup path that does not forward user frames during normal loop-free operation.

Question 248

A change advisory for Sable Ridge Manufacturing has two requirements: (1) handle an unknown unicast destination received on one VLAN, and (2) identify a surge of runts on a shared half-duplex Ethernet link. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, flood to other forwarding ports in that VLAN; then use UDP with an application-appropriate real-time protocol.
  2. First, use the service set identifier or SSID; then investigate collisions and faulty transmission or cabling.
  3. First, use a cloud-hosted deployment with routed connectivity; then run ip address show on Linux.
  4. First, flood to other forwarding ports in that VLAN; then investigate collisions and faulty transmission or cabling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Unknown unicast flooding is confined to the VLAN because the switch lacks a destination entry. (2) Frames shorter than the Ethernet minimum can arise from collision-related fragments or media defects. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses send brief time-sensitive voice media without waiting for retransmissions. UDP avoids built-in retransmission delays and reliability is managed by the application. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses identify the broadcast identifier clients select to join a WLAN. An SSID is the logical wireless network name advertised or provisioned to clients. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use a cloud-hosted deployment with routed connectivity is for place applications on remotely managed cloud compute instead of owned data-center hardware, and Run ip address show on Linux is for show the assigned IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on a Linux interface. Cloud resources are operated on provider infrastructure rather than on premises. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 249

Hillcrest Utilities needs to distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Deploy an IPsec site-to-site VPN tunnel
  2. Configure WPA2 PSK and a sufficiently strong passphrase in the WLC GUI
  3. Label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit
  4. Use authenticated encryption on management protocols

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Site-to-site IPsec protects routed flows between security gateways over an untrusted underlay. That is not sufficient here: A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure.

B:

A WPA2 PSK WLAN authenticates clients through the configured shared secret. That is not sufficient here: A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure.

D:

Encryption prevents passive observation of session data while authentication limits impersonation. That is not sufficient here: A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure.

Question 250

A branch design for Orion Shipping has two requirements: (1) stop unprotected VTY authentication with a shared weak line password, and (2) verify user identity before permitting an administrative login. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, inspect show access-lists counters on the device; then add approved static ARP ACL validation entries or equivalent supported bindings.
  2. First, use authenticated local users or centralized AAA over SSH; then use authentication as the first AAA function.
  3. First, use authenticated local users or centralized AAA over SSH; then place the deny ACE earlier in sequence order.
  4. First, write an extended ACL permitting the host/source and destination subnet with appropriate transport; then use authentication as the first AAA function.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Per-user authenticated access supports accountability and avoids weak shared credentials. (2) Authentication proves who or what is requesting access. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Inspect show access-lists counters on the device is for verify which ACL entries have matches during traffic tests, and Add approved static ARP ACL validation entries or equivalent supported bindings is for troubleshoot DAI dropping valid static-IP devices that lack DHCP bindings. IOS ACL match counters can show which permit or deny clauses see selected traffic. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses ensure a specific host denial is evaluated before a broad permit. IOS ACL processing uses the first matching entry, so later entries are not checked after a match. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses allow one IPv4 source host to reach a management subnet while denying others. Extended ACLs can match both source and destination address criteria for selective traffic policy. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.