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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 50

Question 490

A numbered IPv4 ACL uses source address 192.0.2.0 with wildcard 0.0.0.254. Which source addresses in the 192.0.2.0/24 would match, assuming no other conditions?

  1. All 256 sources in the /24
  2. Odd final-octet source addresses only
  3. Only 192.0.2.0, because noncontiguous wildcards are invalid
  4. Even final-octet source addresses only, because the last wildcard bit is zero and must equal the entry’s zero bit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

In an IOS wildcard, one bits ignore a corresponding address bit and zero bits must match it. 0.0.0.254 ignores bits 1–7 but tests bit 0.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That would require ignoring all eight final-octet bits with wildcard 0.0.0.255.

B:

Odd addresses have the low bit set to one, which conflicts with the fixed zero bit.

C:

IOS wildcard patterns can be noncontiguous and select multiple source values.

Question 491

During a review, the administrator for Cascade Health is asked to prevent one router from becoming DR on a broadcast segment. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop
  2. Configure router-id under the OSPF process and restart the process when required
  3. Set its OSPF interface priority to 0
  4. Look for a C route in show ip route

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An OSPF priority of zero makes the router ineligible for DR or BDR election. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A /32 host route matches exactly one IPv4 destination. That is not sufficient here: An OSPF priority of zero makes the router ineligible for DR or BDR election.

B:

An explicitly configured 32-bit router ID has priority over automatic loopback/interface selection. That is not sufficient here: An OSPF priority of zero makes the router ineligible for DR or BDR election.

D:

A connected route is installed for an operational interface's configured network prefix. That is not sufficient here: An OSPF priority of zero makes the router ineligible for DR or BDR election.

Question 492

At Cascade Health, an engineer must create a new resource through a REST API with a request body. What action meets this technical need?

  1. Run terraform plan and review its proposed actions
  2. Use a southbound API or supported control protocol
  3. Use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups
  4. Use HTTP POST according to the API contract

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The plan reports resource changes without applying them to production. That is not sufficient here: POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload.

B:

Southbound interfaces connect the network controller to forwarding infrastructure. That is not sufficient here: POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload.

C:

Ansible inventories and playbooks run repeatable tasks across selected managed devices. That is not sufficient here: POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload.

Question 493

A change advisory for North Quay Finance has two requirements: (1) distinguish an Ansible inventory from an Ansible playbook, and (2) apply the same network configuration task across devices from an inventory file. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, recognize consistent policy deployment through a central controller; then separate control-plane decisions from data-plane forwarding.
  2. First, use HTTP PUT where the API defines replacement semantics; then use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups.
  3. First, use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks; then send application/json with valid key-value object syntax.
  4. First, use inventory to define hosts and playbook to define ordered tasks; then use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Inventory specifies managed endpoints while a playbook expresses operations to perform. (2) Ansible inventories and playbooks run repeatable tasks across selected managed devices. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Recognize consistent policy deployment through a central controller is for identify one benefit of controller-based networks over traditional manual operations, and Separate control-plane decisions from data-plane forwarding is for differentiate route calculation from actual packet switching. A controller can translate intent into coordinated device settings across a network. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses replace an entire resource representation through a REST endpoint. PUT generally supplies a complete new representation of a target resource. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses pass JSON data to a REST API endpoint. JSON encodes objects and arrays in a machine-readable representation accepted by many REST APIs. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 494

Two branch routers accidentally configure default static routes pointing back toward each other for a destination neither knows. Packet traces show repeated bouncing between the routers. What correction addresses the static-routing failure?

  1. Provide a valid destination-specific or upstream exit route and remove the circular next-hop dependency.
  2. Increase TTL so that packets can circulate longer
  3. Change both routers to the same management IP address
  4. Add an ACL permit-all on both routers and leave defaults unchanged

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A reciprocal default-route dependency can create a routing loop until the packet TTL expires. One router must have a real path or a controlled discard for the destination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A larger TTL extends the loop rather than fixing incorrect next-hop selection.

C:

Duplicate addresses create a new conflict and do not provide a genuine route.

D:

Permitting traffic does not change the circular routing decision.

Question 495

An acceptance check at Hillcrest Utilities has two requirements: (1) deploy standalone wireless connectivity at a tiny site without a central WLC, and (2) detect unauthorized wireless transmitters without serving client associations. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP; then configure spanning-tree portfast on a true endpoint-facing access port.
  2. First, set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges; then enable Loop Guard on eligible non-designated spanning-tree links.
  3. First, use lightweight APs with a WLC and their control tunnels; then use a supported monitor-mode AP.
  4. First, use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP; then use a supported monitor-mode AP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) An autonomous or locally managed AP does not depend on a separate enterprise WLC for all management. (2) A monitor-mode radio can scan spectrum and clients for management/security without providing ordinary access. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses enable rapid host access without waiting for ordinary STP transitions. PortFast brings an edge port to forwarding quickly; it is not safe for an unintended switch link. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Set the intended distribution switch's STP priority lower than competing bridges is for reduce the chance of an unintended access switch becoming STP root, and Enable Loop Guard on eligible non-designated spanning-tree links is for avoid a blocked STP link unexpectedly forwarding after BPDUs disappear. STP root election prefers the lowest bridge ID, so priority controls root placement. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses provide a controller-based WLAN where management and data can be centralized. The controller coordinates WLAN configuration and may centralize traffic depending on AP mode. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 496

During a review, the administrator for Greenfield Services is asked to modify selected configuration fields without replacing all others. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Use HTTP POST according to the API contract
  2. Recognize the software-defined network fabric architecture
  3. Use before-and-after state validation with explicit invariants
  4. Use HTTP PATCH on a supporting REST resource

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PATCH applies a partial update to a resource under the API's defined semantics. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload. That is not sufficient here: PATCH applies a partial update to a resource under the API's defined semantics.

B:

A fabric integrates physical transport with virtual endpoints and centralized policy. That is not sufficient here: PATCH applies a partial update to a resource under the API's defined semantics.

C:

Automated configuration still needs evidence that live devices match the authorized target. That is not sufficient here: PATCH applies a partial update to a resource under the API's defined semantics.

Question 497

A router has these installed routes: 10.0.0.0/8 via 192.0.2.1, 172.16.0.0/12 via 192.0.2.2, and 0.0.0.0/0 via 198.51.100.1. A packet arrives for 203.0.113.77. Which next hop will the forwarding lookup use?

  1. 198.51.100.1, because only the installed default route matches that destination.
  2. 192.0.2.1, because 10.0.0.0/8 is numerically the smallest network.
  3. 192.0.2.2, because /12 always outranks /0 even when the destination does not match.
  4. No route is selected because the packet is not destined to a private IPv4 address.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

203.0.113.77 matches neither listed private prefix, so the 0/0 default entry is the best and only installed match for this destination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Route selection is longest matching destination prefix, not smallest numerical prefix.

C:

A route with longer prefix must still match the destination to be eligible.

D:

An installed IPv4 default route can carry destinations outside the listed private networks.

Question 498

A router contains `ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 198.51.100.9` in running configuration, but the intended /24 does not appear in `show ip route`; the only adjacent transit path to 198.51.100.9 is down. What finding best explains the missing installed route?

  1. All static routes are hidden from `show ip route` even when active.
  2. The static next hop cannot currently resolve over a usable path, so the configured route is not installed in the active RIB.
  3. The /24 mask makes IPv4 static routes invalid on Cisco routers.
  4. The running configuration was cleared automatically when the adjacent interface failed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A configured static route requires an eligible resolvable next hop or egress path to be installed; a down transit interface can prevent that installation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Usable installed static routes appear in the routing table with static-route identification.

C:

A normal /24 destination prefix is valid; next-hop resolution is the issue.

D:

The configured route can remain in running configuration even while its next hop is unreachable.

Question 499

An operations ticket for Cedarline Hotels has two requirements: (1) verify which ACL entries have matches during traffic tests, and (2) decide whether an authenticated user may issue a privileged configuration command. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, inspect show access-lists counters on the device; then label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit.
  2. First, use an approved certificate-based device identity; then enable the WLAN in the WLC GUI and confirm its broadcast/visibility policy.
  3. First, inspect show access-lists counters on the device; then use authorization policies for the requested action.
  4. First, configure a local username, login local, and relevant console line settings; then use authorization policies for the requested action.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) IOS ACL match counters can show which permit or deny clauses see selected traffic. (2) Authorization grants or denies specific operations after identity is established. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it. A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use an approved certificate-based device identity is for authenticate a device without managing a shared human password, and Enable the WLAN in the WLC GUI and confirm its broadcast/visibility policy is for verify the corporate wireless network is enabled after creating a WLAN. Certificates bind cryptographic credentials to a trusted issuing authority and verified identity. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses require a local credential when accessing an IOS console. Line login local authenticates against the device's configured local user database. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 500

A branch design for Riverside Data has two requirements: (1) select three nonoverlapping 20-MHz 2.4-GHz Wi-Fi channels in a common regulatory domain, and (2) distinguish a directed broadcast from an ordinary host IP. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, inspect show ipv6 interface for the FE80::/10 link-local address; then identify the address with all host bits set to one.
  2. First, use channels 1, 6 and 11; then identify the address with all host bits set to one.
  3. First, use channels 1, 6 and 11; then inspect physical cabling, transceivers, and interface counters.
  4. First, recognize an FE80::/10 address with outgoing-interface context; then flood to other forwarding ports in that VLAN.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) These nominal 20-MHz channel centers reduce adjacent-channel overlap in 2.4 GHz. (2) The all-ones host portion represents the subnet-directed broadcast in ordinary IPv4 subnets. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses verify that an IPv6 interface has a link-local address. Link-local addresses are used for on-link neighbor discovery and routing adjacencies. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses diagnose rising CRC/FCS errors on one access port. Corrupt Ethernet frames commonly indicate physical media, cabling, or signaling faults. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Recognize an FE80::/10 address with outgoing-interface context is for identify an IPv6 link-local next hop, and Flood to other forwarding ports in that VLAN is for handle an unknown unicast destination received on one VLAN. A link-local IPv6 address is only meaningful on its link and may require an interface zone. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.