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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 74

Question 730

An operations ticket for Summit Research has two requirements: (1) change the untagged VLAN on a trunk to match a remote neighbor, and (2) prevent an unused VLAN from crossing a trunk link. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, configure the same switchport trunk native vlan on both trunk ends; then use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP.
  2. First, configure the same switchport trunk native vlan on both trunk ends; then remove it from the trunk allowed VLAN list.
  3. First, configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS; then configure the AP switchport for the intended management access VLAN.
  4. First, use a supported monitor-mode AP; then remove it from the trunk allowed VLAN list.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Native VLAN mismatch can place untagged traffic into different Layer 2 broadcast domains. (2) The allowed list determines which tagged VLANs may traverse the trunk. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses deploy standalone wireless connectivity at a tiny site without a central WLC. An autonomous or locally managed AP does not depend on a separate enterprise WLC for all management. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Configure an appropriate WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise WLAN with RADIUS is for enforce per-user identity authentication for an enterprise WLAN, and Configure the AP switchport for the intended management access VLAN is for connect a lightweight AP expecting one untagged management VLAN on an access port. Enterprise WLAN security uses 802.1X/EAP against an authentication server. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses detect unauthorized wireless transmitters without serving client associations. A monitor-mode radio can scan spectrum and clients for management/security without providing ordinary access. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 731

A capture shows an untagged Ethernet frame leaving S1 across an 802.1Q trunk. S1 native VLAN is 120 while S2 native VLAN is 130; native tagging is off at both peers. Into which VLAN does S2 classify that arriving untagged frame?

  1. VLAN 130, because the receiving trunk assigns untagged ingress traffic to its own native VLAN.
  2. VLAN 120, because the sender’s native-VLAN configuration is carried in every untagged frame.
  3. Both VLANs simultaneously, because a native mismatch duplicates the Ethernet frame.
  4. No VLAN at all, because an 802.1Q trunk must tag every frame by default.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Untagged frames are classified by the receiver’s native-VLAN setting; the mismatch changes the VLAN context across the link.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An untagged frame carries no 802.1Q VLAN identifier for the sender’s native VLAN.

C:

A frame is not replicated into both native VLANs merely by a native mismatch.

D:

With native tagging disabled, untagged native traffic is expected and assigned on ingress.

Question 732

An acceptance check at Greenfield Services has two requirements: (1) separate VPN encryption from peer authentication in an IPsec negotiation, and (2) distinguish a software flaw from an attacker action exploiting it. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations; then label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit.
  2. First, use authentication as the first AAA function; then recognize WPA as older and prefer stronger supported alternatives.
  3. First, configure appropriate peer identity authentication and negotiated cryptographic algorithms; then use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs.
  4. First, configure appropriate peer identity authentication and negotiated cryptographic algorithms; then label the software weakness as a vulnerability and misuse as an exploit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A usable IPsec tunnel depends on peers authenticating and agreeing on protection parameters. (2) A vulnerability is an exposure; an exploit is a technique that takes advantage of that exposure. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses limit risk from a publicly disclosed software CVE on network gear. Fixing or mitigating a known vulnerability reduces exploitability on exposed devices. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use authentication as the first AAA function is for verify user identity before permitting an administrative login, and Recognize WPA as older and prefer stronger supported alternatives is for identify a wireless security mode using legacy TKIP and known weaknesses. Authentication proves who or what is requesting access. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses prevent unauthorized visitors from entering a network equipment room. Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 733

A change request at Stonebridge Learning following a scheduled maintenance window requires the team to stop Telnet access on router VTY lines. Which response best meets this requirement?

  1. Set an appropriate DSCP marking at a trusted policy boundary
  2. Configure transport input ssh on the intended VTY lines
  3. Correct the DHCP DNS option or local resolver setting
  4. Configure SNMP traps or informs to an authorized receiver

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DSCP bits in the IP header signal intended per-hop forwarding treatment. That is not sufficient here: Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access.

C:

IP connectivity can work while name resolution fails because resolver configuration is wrong. That is not sufficient here: Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access.

D:

SNMP notifications push device events to a management station. That is not sufficient here: Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access.

Question 734

A branch design for Cedarline Hotels has two requirements: (1) disable a switchport after a port-security violation, and (2) learn a device MAC dynamically and save it as a secure configuration entry. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs
  2. Use switchport port-security violation shutdown
  3. Enable port-security sticky MAC learning
  4. Install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations
  5. Add an explicit permit for eligible remaining traffic

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (1): The shutdown violation mode puts the protected interface into an error-disabled state on violation. The other outcome needs its separate action.

C:

Correct for outcome (2): Sticky learning converts learned secure MACs into addresses retained in running configuration. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Use badge-controlled physical access with audited entry logs is for prevent unauthorized visitors from entering a network equipment room. Physical access controls reduce direct device tampering or console misuse. This is not one of the two required changes.

D:

Not selected: Install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations is for limit risk from a publicly disclosed software CVE on network gear. Fixing or mitigating a known vulnerability reduces exploitability on exposed devices. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

E:

Not selected: Add an explicit permit for eligible remaining traffic is for allow the rest of an ACL's traffic after a specific deny. Without a final permit, the implicit deny blocks traffic not otherwise matched. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 735

A change advisory for Oakbridge University has two requirements: (1) distinguish static route entries from learned routes, and (2) identify the route of last resort in an IPv4 routing table. Which option meets both stated needs?

  1. First, use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop; then use an installed 0.0.0.0/0 default route.
  2. First, recognize the S routing table code; then recognize point-to-point OSPF network type.
  3. First, use router ospf with network statements and wildcard masks for area 0; then find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort.
  4. First, recognize the S routing table code; then find the default 0.0.0.0/0 route and gateway of last resort.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Cisco IOS marks configured static routes with S in show ip route. (2) A default route handles destinations not covered by a more-specific installed route. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use ip route 198.51.100.77 255.255.255.255 with a valid next hop is for configure a static host route to one IPv4 server at 198.51.100.77, and Use an installed 0.0.0.0/0 default route is for route an unknown destination when no more-specific route is present. A /32 host route matches exactly one IPv4 destination. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses explain why a point-to-point OSPF link has no DR election. Point-to-point OSPF forms a direct adjacency without broadcast-media DR/BDR roles. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses enable single-area OSPF on matching IPv4 interfaces. OSPF network statements select interfaces for the specified area using address and wildcard matching. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 736

Two OSPFv2 routers on a point-to-point area 0 link have matching addressing, Hello/dead timers, and area settings, but show identical router IDs of 10.10.10.10 in their OSPF process output. What should the administrator correct?

  1. Lower the Hello interval on only one router to force the exchange.
  2. Add an Ethernet broadcast DR election to the point-to-point link.
  3. Configure the same interface cost on both peers.
  4. Assign a unique OSPF router ID to one router and apply the required OSPF process restart or reset.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF requires distinct router IDs to identify neighbors; changing one ID and activating that change resolves the identity collision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A one-sided timer change would introduce a separate Hello-parameter mismatch.

B:

Point-to-point OSPF does not need a broadcast designated-router election to form its adjacency.

C:

Equal costs are not a requirement for OSPF neighbor formation.

Question 737

An operations ticket for Baypoint Retail has two requirements: (1) avoid losing traceability when automation changes routing policy, and (2) limit the blast radius of a faulty automation deployment. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, store automation definitions under version control with deployment records; then roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution.
  2. First, issue HTTP DELETE with required authentication and authorization; then roll out changes to a small validated device group before fleet-wide execution.
  3. First, store automation definitions under version control with deployment records; then use before-and-after state validation with explicit invariants.
  4. First, run terraform plan and review its proposed actions; then require validated evidence and human/network policy checks before execution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Versioned automation allows change review, reproducible rollout and rollback. (2) Staged automation reduces the number of devices affected by an unexpected template error. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses delete an authorized API resource by its URI. DELETE requests resource removal and must be permitted by the server's policy. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses verify that a network automation run changed only intended fields. Automated configuration still needs evidence that live devices match the authorized target. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Run terraform plan and review its proposed actions is for check what Terraform intends to change before deploying, and Require validated evidence and human/network policy checks before execution is for avoid trusting an AI-recommended change without checking live configuration. The plan reports resource changes without applying them to production. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 738

For the identical prefix 172.17.2.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.123); OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.205); static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.122); OSPF route was withdrawn. Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.122)
  2. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.205)
  3. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  4. RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.123)

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

static (AD 1) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over RIP (AD 120).

Incorrect Answers

B:

The OSPF route was explicitly withdrawn; its former AD 110 does not make it an eligible candidate for this decision.

C:

The static (AD 1) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

D:

This RIP route has AD 120, higher than the eligible static (AD 1); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

Question 739

At Oakbridge University, an engineer must retain events across a device reboot and aggregate by site. Which action directly meets this requirement?

  1. Use SNMP polling with permitted MIB object identifiers
  2. Build a standard NAT ACL matching only approved inside-local addresses
  3. Recognize Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge
  4. Send syslog to an external authorized collector

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Local device buffers can be lost on reboot, while a log server retains centralized history. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SNMP management stations can query device agent variables such as interface counters. That is not sufficient here: Local device buffers can be lost on reboot, while a log server retains centralized history.

B:

The NAT selection ACL decides which inside sources may be translated using the pool. That is not sufficient here: Local device buffers can be lost on reboot, while a log server retains centralized history.

C:

DORA negotiates a leased IPv4 address and associated network options. That is not sufficient here: Local device buffers can be lost on reboot, while a log server retains centralized history.

Question 740

At Hillcrest Utilities, an engineer must prevent an interface from sending OSPF hello packets while still advertising its connected network. Which option best addresses this requirement?

  1. Run show ip ospf neighbor and inspect state
  2. Configure passive-interface on the relevant OSPF interface
  3. Look for a C route in show ip route
  4. Configure ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Passive interfaces suppress OSPF neighbor hello formation while eligible network prefixes remain advertised. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The neighbor table shows adjacency state and neighbor identifiers on OSPF interfaces. That is not sufficient here: Passive interfaces suppress OSPF neighbor hello formation while eligible network prefixes remain advertised.

C:

A connected route is installed for an operational interface's configured network prefix. That is not sufficient here: Passive interfaces suppress OSPF neighbor hello formation while eligible network prefixes remain advertised.

D:

The all-zero destination and mask define the IPv4 default route via the next hop. That is not sufficient here: Passive interfaces suppress OSPF neighbor hello formation while eligible network prefixes remain advertised.