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Cisco 200-301 Bundle

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 109

Question 1080

A change advisory for Baypoint Retail has two requirements: (1) install a route toward an adjacent directly connected point-to-point interface, and (2) set an OSPF router ID explicitly to avoid unexpected election. Which plan correctly handles both requirements?

  1. First, allow equal-cost multipath when the platform and configuration permit it; then give the backup static route AD higher than OSPF's 110.
  2. First, configure the target prefix with the valid outgoing point-to-point interface; then configure router-id under the OSPF process and restart the process when required.
  3. First, configure the target prefix with the valid outgoing point-to-point interface; then compare their configured router IDs.
  4. First, inspect the via next-hop field in show ip route; then configure router-id under the OSPF process and restart the process when required.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) On a point-to-point interface, the route can use the egress interface without Ethernet ARP for each host. (2) An explicitly configured 32-bit router ID has priority over automatic loopback/interface selection. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Allow equal-cost multipath when the platform and configuration permit it is for retain two equal-cost eligible OSPF routes for one prefix, and Give the backup static route AD higher than OSPF's 110 is for provide a static backup only if an OSPF route to the same prefix disappears. ECMP can install several equally preferred next hops to the same exact prefix. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses identify which router becomes the OSPF DR among two equal-priority routers. Higher router ID wins the DR election priority tie when both are otherwise eligible. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses find the next-hop IP for a learned destination prefix. The routing-table next hop identifies the neighbor to which packets should be forwarded. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 1081

Four OSPF routers become eligible simultaneously on an Ethernet broadcast segment, with no existing DR/BDR: R1 (priority 6, router ID 10.255.0.197); R2 (priority 7, router ID 10.255.0.167); R3 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.174); R4 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.116). Which router wins designated router election?

  1. R3 (priority 9, router ID 10.255.0.174)
  2. R2 (priority 7, router ID 10.255.0.167)
  3. R4 (priority 20, router ID 10.255.0.116)
  4. R1 (priority 6, router ID 10.255.0.197)

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPF broadcast DR election considers eligible nonzero interface priority first, with router ID breaking ties. R4 has the highest eligible priority 20.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This router has zero priority or an inferior priority to the winner and cannot be the elected DR here.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “R2 (priority 7, router ID 10.255.0.167)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “R1 (priority 6, router ID 10.255.0.197)” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 1082

A branch design for Stonebridge Learning has two requirements: (1) explain the logical segmentation created over a shared routed fabric, and (2) apply the same network configuration task across devices from an inventory file. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Use an overlay network or virtual segmentation policy
  2. Use HTTP POST according to the API contract
  3. Use logical overlay endpoint mappings on a reachable underlay
  4. Use Ansible playbooks and modules with device groups
  5. Send an authenticated HTTP GET to the resource URI

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (1): An overlay encodes logical connectivity and isolation on top of the underlay. The other outcome needs its separate action.

D:

Correct for outcome (2): Ansible inventories and playbooks run repeatable tasks across selected managed devices. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Not selected: Use HTTP POST according to the API contract is for create a new resource through a REST API with a request body. POST commonly submits resource creation or actions with a payload. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Use logical overlay endpoint mappings on a reachable underlay is for explain why fabric endpoint mobility can work without changing each physical trunk. Endpoint-to-location mappings decouple service connectivity from physical topology. This is not one of the two required changes.

E:

Not selected: Send an authenticated HTTP GET to the resource URI is for retrieve a network device's configuration using a REST endpoint. GET retrieves the representation of a resource without intending to create it. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 1083

A change request at Hillcrest Utilities during a fault isolation test requires the team to handle an unknown unicast destination received on one VLAN. What response best fits this requirement?

  1. Choose a /26 subnet with 62 usable addresses
  2. Flood to other forwarding ports in that VLAN
  3. Use a next-generation firewall with relevant application policies
  4. Issue no shutdown on the intended interface after checking change authority

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unknown unicast flooding is confined to the VLAN because the switch lacks a destination entry. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Six host bits yield 64 total addresses, generally 62 usable after network and broadcast. That is not sufficient here: Unknown unicast flooding is confined to the VLAN because the switch lacks a destination entry.

C:

A next-generation firewall can classify application traffic and track sessions before permitting flows. That is not sufficient here: Unknown unicast flooding is confined to the VLAN because the switch lacks a destination entry.

D:

Administratively down indicates a configuration state rather than proof of failed physical media. That is not sufficient here: Unknown unicast flooding is confined to the VLAN because the switch lacks a destination entry.

Question 1084

During a review, the administrator for Riverside Data is asked to retain two equal-cost eligible OSPF routes for one prefix. Which approach satisfies the precise requirement?

  1. Compare administrative distances of static 1 and OSPF 110
  2. Configure an FHRP such as HSRP or VRRP on the gateway VLAN
  3. Allow equal-cost multipath when the platform and configuration permit it
  4. Apply the longest-prefix-match forwarding rule

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ECMP can install several equally preferred next hops to the same exact prefix. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Administrative distance selects the preferred source of identical-prefix routes before comparing metrics. That is not sufficient here: ECMP can install several equally preferred next hops to the same exact prefix.

B:

Without a virtual gateway mechanism, loss of the configured single default gateway can strand clients. That is not sufficient here: ECMP can install several equally preferred next hops to the same exact prefix.

D:

Among matching prefixes, the route with the most significant matched bits wins forwarding. That is not sufficient here: ECMP can install several equally preferred next hops to the same exact prefix.

Question 1085

On a working 802.1Q trunk, VLAN 30 traffic is explicitly tagged and the allowed list includes VLAN 30. Both peers change their matching native VLAN from 99 to 199 without altering VLAN 30 or native-tagging settings. What happens to the tagged VLAN 30 frames?

  1. They are automatically retagged as VLAN 199 because it is now native.
  2. They still identify VLAN 30 in the 802.1Q tag; a native-VLAN change does not relabel correctly tagged VLAN 30 frames.
  3. They become untagged because all VLANs use the new native VLAN.
  4. They are dropped solely because the native VLAN number has changed on both peers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A tagged VLAN uses its explicit VLAN ID; changing the native VLAN affects the classification of untagged traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The native setting does not override a separate explicit VLAN 30 tag.

C:

Only native-VLAN traffic is untagged in this configuration; VLAN 30 remains tagged.

D:

Matching native settings on both ends do not independently invalidate an otherwise allowed tagged VLAN.

Question 1086

An operations ticket for Riverside Data has two requirements: (1) aggregate WLC uplinks for bandwidth and resilience, and (2) diagnose why a new AP cannot join its WLC despite an active Ethernet port. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, use a supported monitor-mode AP; then check AP management IP, DHCP, DNS/discovery and routing to the WLC.
  2. First, configure VLAN SVIs with IP addresses and enable ip routing; then keep the alternate port discarding until needed.
  3. First, configure controller-supported link aggregation with the corresponding switch port-channel; then use a supported out-of-band console connection.
  4. First, configure controller-supported link aggregation with the corresponding switch port-channel; then check AP management IP, DHCP, DNS/discovery and routing to the WLC.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) A compatible aggregated uplink spreads supported traffic across multiple physical links. (2) Layer 1 link up alone does not establish controller discovery and join reachability. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses detect unauthorized wireless transmitters without serving client associations. A monitor-mode radio can scan spectrum and clients for management/security without providing ordinary access. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

B:

Neither step is the requested pair: Configure VLAN SVIs with IP addresses and enable ip routing is for route between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 using a multilayer switch, and Keep the alternate port discarding until needed is for understand Rapid PVST+ alternate-port behavior. Layer 3 forwarding across VLANs requires an active routed interface for each subnet. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses manage a switch when its production network is unreachable. A console provides local management access independent of in-band IP reachability. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 1087

On shared broadcast Ethernet Gi0/3, R1 uses 10.48.176.1/29 and R2 uses 10.48.176.18/29, with matching OSPF area, timers, and authentication. They fail to form adjacency. Which IP change fixes their subnet mismatch without duplicating R1’s address?

  1. Raise R2 OSPF priority without changing either subnet
  2. Configure R2 Gi0/3 as 10.48.176.1/29, duplicating R1
  3. Configure R2 Gi0/3 as 10.48.176.2/29, an unused host in R1 subnet
  4. Configure R2 Gi0/3 as 10.48.176.18/30 without moving R1

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

R1 10.48.176.1/29 is in 10.48.176.0/29; R2 10.48.176.2/29 is a different usable address in that same on-link subnet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This action does not correct the exact interface/OSPF mismatch shown in the scenario.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “Configure R2 Gi0/3 as 10.48.176.1/29, duplicating R1” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “Configure R2 Gi0/3 as 10.48.176.18/30 without moving R1” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 1088

A router receives a packet for destination 10.48.182.22. Its installed forwarding table contains 10.48.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.1; 10.48.182.0/24 via 192.0.2.2; 10.48.182.16/28 via 192.0.2.3; 10.48.182.20/30 via 192.0.2.4. Assume all routes are valid. Which route does ordinary IPv4 forwarding use?

  1. 10.48.182.16/28 via 192.0.2.3
  2. 10.48.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.1
  3. 10.48.182.20/30 via 192.0.2.4
  4. 10.48.182.0/24 via 192.0.2.2

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

10.48.182.20/30 has /30, the longest prefix that matches 10.48.182.22. Forwarding prefers specificity over other route metadata.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That route also matches but its prefix length is shorter than /30; a more-specific matching prefix wins.

B:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “10.48.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.1” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

D:

That explanation does not distinguish this option. “10.48.182.0/24 via 192.0.2.2” is an alternative action, but it does not by itself establish the outcome required in this case.

Question 1089

An acceptance check at Cascade Health has two requirements: (1) avoid exposing Cisco discovery information on an untrusted edge link, and (2) bundle two compatible physical Ethernet switchports into one logical LACP link. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, use HTTPS management instead of unencrypted HTTP; then use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP.
  2. First, set the opposite peer to LACP active; then configure matching channel-group IDs with mode active on the intended member ports.
  3. First, disable CDP on that specific interface; then avoid BPDU filter on unmanaged switch-to-switch links.
  4. First, disable CDP on that specific interface; then configure matching channel-group IDs with mode active on the intended member ports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Interface-level no cdp enable stops Cisco discovery advertisements on the selected port. (2) LACP negotiates a logical port-channel while distributing eligible flows across member links. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use HTTPS management instead of unencrypted HTTP is for secure browser-based device administration on a WLC, and Use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP is for deploy standalone wireless connectivity at a tiny site without a central WLC. HTTPS uses TLS to protect management web sessions in transit. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses form an LACP channel where one side is passive. Passive/ passive cannot initiate an LACP exchange, while an active side can negotiate with passive. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses explain why indiscriminate BPDU filtering risks a bridging loop. Suppressing BPDUs can hide redundant links from spanning-tree loop prevention. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 1090

An inbound IOS IPv4 ACL currently evaluates `10 permit ip any any` before `20 deny ip host 192.0.2.77 any`. A packet sourced from 192.0.2.77 still passes. Which edit directly fixes this filtering logic while keeping the general permit for other sources?

  1. Place the specific source-host deny before the broad permit, then verify the match counters and an affected test flow.
  2. Change the deny statement to use `eq 443` but leave the broad permit first.
  3. Move the deny statement even farther down the ACL after the final implicit deny.
  4. Change the wildcard for 192.0.2.77 to 0.0.0.255 and keep the deny after the permit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IOS ACLs use the first matching ACE, so the first broad permit wins; the targeted host deny must be evaluated earlier.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The earlier permit still matches and ends evaluation before the later deny.

C:

Later ACEs are not reached after an earlier explicit permit; placement must precede the broad match.

D:

Broadening the source match does not overcome first-match evaluation order.