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Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Certification Provider: Cisco

Corresponding Certification: CCNA

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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 65

Question 640

A security ACL has sequence 10 permit ip any any followed by sequence 20 deny tcp any host 198.51.100.8 eq 23. The Telnet deny never matches. What is the root problem?

  1. The destination host 198.51.100.8 is never valid in an extended ACL
  2. The deny requires a lower TCP port number than 23 to function
  3. The ACL must contain a route statement before any permit or deny
  4. The broad permit at sequence 10 matches first and shadows the later specific deny.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

IOS ACL processing stops at the first matching ACE. A permit for all IPv4 traffic above the Telnet deny makes the deny unreachable for those packets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Host matching is valid in a destination field; rule order is the problem.

B:

Telnet uses TCP destination port 23 as written, but the earlier permit shadows the deny.

C:

An ACL is a packet filter; adding a static route is not a repair for shadowed ACE order.

Question 641

A change advisory for Hillcrest Utilities has two requirements: (1) recognize an RFC1918 address in 192.168.0.0/16, and (2) show the assigned IPv4 and IPv6 addresses on a Linux interface. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, make both link ends negotiate or explicitly agree on matching duplex; then run ip address show on Linux.
  2. First, classify 192.168/16 as private IPv4 space; then run ip address show on Linux.
  3. First, classify 192.168/16 as private IPv4 space; then use IPv6 anycast with routing toward the common address.
  4. First, use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture; then use fiber-optic cabling with suitable optics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) 192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255 is reserved for private addressing. (2) The ip command displays local interface addresses without assuming legacy ifconfig is installed. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses resolve an Ethernet link showing late collisions and duplex inconsistency. A full/half duplex mismatch creates errors and poor performance even if the link stays up. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses have several servers share one IPv6 service address delivered to the nearest instance. Anycast uses one unicast-format address on multiple nodes and routing selects a reachable instance. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

D:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use a three-tier access/distribution/core architecture is for separate access, aggregation, and backbone roles in a large campus, and Use fiber-optic cabling with suitable optics is for select a medium immune to electromagnetic interference in an industrial plant. Separate tiers scale policy aggregation and fast backbone transport independently. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

Question 642

An acceptance check at Copperline Studios has two requirements: (1) avoid unbounded starvation of lower-priority traffic, and (2) identify a critical traffic class using header fields before queuing. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Configure transport input ssh on the intended VTY lines
  2. Enable SSH using a hostname/domain, local user or AAA and VTY SSH transport
  3. Set policy bandwidth allocation and bounded priority classes
  4. Classify packets using matching criteria such as DSCP or ACL
  5. Configure ip dhcp excluded-address for the reserved range

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Correct for outcome (1): QoS queuing policies should reserve service for important classes without allowing one class unlimited capacity. The other outcome needs its separate action.

D:

Correct for outcome (2): QoS classification places packets into classes for later marking, queuing or policing actions. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Configure transport input ssh on the intended VTY lines is for stop Telnet access on router VTY lines. Restricting VTY transport to SSH prevents cleartext Telnet management access. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

B:

Not selected: Enable SSH using a hostname/domain, local user or AAA and VTY SSH transport is for secure remote CLI login to a Cisco router over IP. SSH encrypts remote terminal sessions and requires suitable keys and login configuration. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

E:

Not selected: Configure ip dhcp excluded-address for the reserved range is for exclude network device gateway addresses from a local IOS DHCP server pool. Exclusions prevent the IOS DHCP pool from leasing reserved router or server addresses. This is not one of the two required changes.

Question 643

A change advisory for Willowbrook Transit has two requirements: (1) deploy standalone wireless connectivity at a tiny site without a central WLC, and (2) enable rapid host access without waiting for ordinary STP transitions. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Configure spanning-tree portfast on a true endpoint-facing access port
  2. Map the WLAN to its intended client VLAN or policy profile
  3. Configure switchport mode access and switchport access vlan 20
  4. Use a supported autonomous AP mode or small-business AP
  5. Add routing through an SVI or router gateway

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correct for outcome (2): PortFast brings an edge port to forwarding quickly; it is not safe for an unintended switch link. It complements the first required control.

D:

Correct for outcome (1): An autonomous or locally managed AP does not depend on a separate enterprise WLC for all management. The other outcome needs its separate action.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Not selected: Map the WLAN to its intended client VLAN or policy profile is for assign different WLAN client traffic to an approved wired segment. Controller WLAN-to-VLAN mapping determines the wired broadcast domain for client data. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

C:

Not selected: Configure switchport mode access and switchport access vlan 20 is for provide an access switchport for a desktop in VLAN 20. An access port sends and receives the configured user VLAN without a data VLAN tag to the ordinary endpoint. This is not one of the two required changes.

E:

Not selected: Add routing through an SVI or router gateway is for explain why newly created VLAN hosts cannot talk across VLANs by default. A Layer 2 VLAN boundary does not forward IPv4 packets between IP subnets by itself. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

Question 644

For the identical prefix 172.18.182.0/24, a router evaluates these route candidates: static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.42); OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.68); RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.208); static route was withdrawn. Ignore differences in metric across protocols. Which available source takes precedence in the routing table?

  1. No eligible route remains for this prefix
  2. OSPF (AD 110, via 192.0.2.68)
  3. static (AD 1, via 192.0.2.42)
  4. RIP (AD 120, via 192.0.2.208)

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF (AD 110) is the eligible same-prefix candidate with the lowest administrative distance; it is preferred over RIP (AD 120).

Incorrect Answers

A:

The OSPF (AD 110) candidate is still eligible for this exact prefix, so it is incorrect to say that no route remains.

C:

The static route was explicitly withdrawn; its former AD 1 does not make it an eligible candidate for this decision.

D:

This RIP route has AD 120, higher than the eligible OSPF (AD 110); for the same prefix, Cisco chooses the lower administrative distance.

Question 645

A change advisory for Orion Shipping has two requirements: (1) attach an IPv4 ACL to traffic entering an interface, and (2) limit failed login brute-force attempts against a device. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, apply ip access-group ACLNAME in on the selected interface; then configure login block-for with appropriate attempts and time windows.
  2. First, use DHCP snooping on the client VLAN; then configure login block-for with appropriate attempts and time windows.
  3. First, use authenticated encryption on management protocols; then enable the WLAN in the WLC GUI and confirm its broadcast/visibility policy.
  4. First, apply ip access-group ACLNAME in on the selected interface; then install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) The in direction checks arriving packets before routed forwarding toward their destination. (2) The IOS login block feature delays further attempts after repeated failed authentications. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses build an authoritative IP-to-MAC-to-port binding table from legitimate DHCP leases. The snooping binding database records approved DHCP assignments for downstream validation. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Use authenticated encryption on management protocols is for protect confidentiality of management credentials in transit, and Enable the WLAN in the WLC GUI and confirm its broadcast/visibility policy is for verify the corporate wireless network is enabled after creating a WLAN. Encryption prevents passive observation of session data while authentication limits impersonation. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses limit risk from a publicly disclosed software CVE on network gear. Fixing or mitigating a known vulnerability reduces exploitability on exposed devices. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

Question 646

An acceptance check at Summit Research has two requirements: (1) detect anomalous device behavior from a baseline of normal traffic, and (2) identify the mapping between a JSON key and its associated value. Which proposed plan satisfies both outcomes?

  1. First, run terraform plan and review its proposed actions; then validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines.
  2. First, use anomaly detection with representative training or baseline data; then recognize HTTP 401 Unauthorized and inspect credentials.
  3. First, use JSON boolean true or false without quotation marks; then recognize an object property written as a quoted key followed by a colon.
  4. First, use anomaly detection with representative training or baseline data; then recognize an object property written as a quoted key followed by a colon.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Anomaly detection identifies departures from learned normal patterns for investigation. (2) JSON objects store named properties with string keys and supported value types. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Neither step is the requested pair: Run terraform plan and review its proposed actions is for check what Terraform intends to change before deploying, and Validate data quality, missing values and representative baselines is for identify a risk from using poor-quality network telemetry to train AI. The plan reports resource changes without applying them to production. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses identify a REST response indicating the caller lacks valid authentication. 401 commonly indicates absent/invalid authentication, while 403 often signals insufficient authorization. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses represent the true/false state of an API interface property. JSON has native boolean literals distinct from string values. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 647

A network upgrade at Summit Research has two requirements: (1) determine which network a configured IPv4 host belongs to, and (2) size an IPv4 subnet for at least 50 ordinary host addresses. Select TWO actions that together satisfy both outcomes.

  1. Use a spine-leaf topology with leaf-to-spine uplinks
  2. Apply the subnet mask bitwise to the host address
  3. Forward only through the learned destination port unless it is the ingress port
  4. Use the service set identifier or SSID
  5. Choose a /26 subnet with 62 usable addresses

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct for outcome (1): The IPv4 network address is the bitwise AND of the IP address and subnet mask. The other outcome needs its separate action.

E:

Correct for outcome (2): Six host bits yield 64 total addresses, generally 62 usable after network and broadcast. It complements the first required control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Not selected: Use a spine-leaf topology with leaf-to-spine uplinks is for deliver predictable east-west paths among multiple data-center racks. Each leaf reaches other leaves through spine devices, reducing variable hop counts. This is outside the two requested outcomes.

C:

Not selected: Forward only through the learned destination port unless it is the ingress port is for deliver a frame with a known unicast destination in the same VLAN. Known unicast switching uses the CAM destination lookup to avoid unnecessary flooding. This is not one of the two required changes.

D:

Not selected: Use the service set identifier or SSID is for identify the broadcast identifier clients select to join a WLAN. An SSID is the logical wireless network name advertised or provisioned to clients. This does not provide either of the two specified controls.

Question 648

Oakbridge University needs to avoid comparing routing protocol metrics across unrelated protocols. Which implementation directly addresses that objective without replacing it with a different network control?

  1. Compare their configured router IDs
  2. Use ip route 10.40.8.0 255.255.254.0 with the valid next hop
  3. Configure the target prefix with the valid outgoing point-to-point interface
  4. Compare AD for identical prefixes before protocol-specific metrics

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF and EIGRP metrics are not directly comparable scales across protocols. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Higher router ID wins the DR election priority tie when both are otherwise eligible. That is not sufficient here: OSPF and EIGRP metrics are not directly comparable scales across protocols.

B:

A /23 mask covers the two adjacent /24s 10.40.8.0 and 10.40.9.0. That is not sufficient here: OSPF and EIGRP metrics are not directly comparable scales across protocols.

C:

On a point-to-point interface, the route can use the egress interface without Ethernet ARP for each host. That is not sufficient here: OSPF and EIGRP metrics are not directly comparable scales across protocols.

Question 649

A change advisory for North Quay Finance has two requirements: (1) limit risk from a publicly disclosed software CVE on network gear, and (2) avoid unattended visitors modifying shared network workstations. Which option addresses both requirements?

  1. First, install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations; then require screen locking and restricted physical device access.
  2. First, install vendor-approved security patches or mitigations; then add an explicit permit for eligible remaining traffic.
  3. First, deploy an IPsec site-to-site VPN tunnel; then use authenticated encryption on management protocols.
  4. First, match the PSK configured on the WLAN and clients; then require screen locking and restricted physical device access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both outcomes are covered: (1) Fixing or mitigating a known vulnerability reduces exploitability on exposed devices. (2) Basic endpoint hygiene and physical controls help protect logged-in administrative sessions. Neither action is a substitute for the other.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The first step covers (1), but the second addresses allow the rest of an ACL's traffic after a specific deny. Without a final permit, the implicit deny blocks traffic not otherwise matched. It leaves outcome (2) unfulfilled.

C:

Neither step is the requested pair: Deploy an IPsec site-to-site VPN tunnel is for protect traffic between branch routers over an untrusted WAN, and Use authenticated encryption on management protocols is for protect confidentiality of management credentials in transit. Site-to-site IPsec protects routed flows between security gateways over an untrusted underlay. The proposed plan misses the two stated outcomes.

D:

The second step covers (2), but the first addresses troubleshoot client association failure when the WLC has an incorrect pre-shared key. WPA2-Personal handshake succeeds only when both sides derive the same key material. It leaves outcome (1) unfulfilled.

Question 650

A change request at Cedarline Hotels following a scheduled maintenance window requires the team to discover a neighboring Cisco switch's device name and management address. Which option directly addresses the stated need?

  1. Configure 802.1Q router subinterfaces with VLAN tags and gateway addresses
  2. Configure spanning-tree portfast on a true endpoint-facing access port
  3. Configure a trunk using 802.1Q with needed allowed VLANs
  4. Inspect show cdp neighbors detail on an enabled link

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CDP exchanges Cisco neighbor information at Layer 2, including platform and management identifiers. This is the control that implements the specified requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Router-on-a-stick separates VLAN traffic by subinterface over one physical trunk. That is not sufficient here: CDP exchanges Cisco neighbor information at Layer 2, including platform and management identifiers.

B:

PortFast brings an edge port to forwarding quickly; it is not safe for an unintended switch link. That is not sufficient here: CDP exchanges Cisco neighbor information at Layer 2, including platform and management identifiers.

C:

An 802.1Q trunk tags most VLAN frames so several VLANs can share one interswitch link. That is not sufficient here: CDP exchanges Cisco neighbor information at Layer 2, including platform and management identifiers.